A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a 1-year-old following cleft lip and cleft palate repair.
Which of the following are developmental concerns for the infant? Potential delays in:
Fine motor skills.
Oral motor skills.
Proprioceptive skills.
Olfactory motor skills.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While fine motor skills may be indirectly affected, primary developmental concerns following cleft lip and palate repair center on oral motor function. The anatomical reconstruction primarily impacts feeding, speech articulation, and oral coordination, which are foundational to oral motor skill development. Fine motor development is less directly impacted by this specific surgical correction.
Choice B rationale
Cleft lip and palate repair directly impacts the oral structures essential for proper feeding and speech development, leading to potential delays in oral motor skills. Infants may experience difficulties with sucking, swallowing, and later, articulating sounds due to altered anatomy and muscle function. Early intervention and therapy are crucial to address these challenges.
Choice C rationale
Proprioceptive skills, which involve the sense of body position and movement, are not typically a primary developmental concern following cleft lip and palate repair. The surgery primarily affects the oral cavity and facial structures. While overall development can be complex, direct anatomical or neurological impact on proprioception is not a standard complication.
Choice D rationale
Olfactory motor skills, related to the sense of smell and associated motor responses, are not directly impacted by cleft lip and palate repair. The surgical intervention focuses on the oral and facial structures, not the olfactory system. Therefore, developmental delays in this specific area are not a primary concern following this type of corrective surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This action is critical because immediate manual elevation of the fetal presenting part off the prolapsed umbilical cord directly alleviates cord compression, which is the primary cause of fetal hypoxia and acidosis. Sustained compression compromises umbilical blood flow, depriving the fetus of oxygen and nutrients, leading to severe bradycardia and potential neurological damage. This direct intervention aims to restore uteroplacental perfusion.
Choice B rationale
The knee-to-chest position, along with Trendelenburg or modified Sims, leverages gravity to displace the presenting fetal part away from the pelvis and the prolapsed cord. This physical repositioning reduces the pressure exerted by the fetus on the cord, thereby minimizing further compromise of blood flow and maintaining fetal oxygenation. These positions help to prevent further compression.
Choice C rationale
Continuous fetal heart tone monitoring is essential for ongoing assessment of fetal well-being, but it is not a *priority action* in the sense of directly intervening to relieve cord compression. While crucial for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and guiding subsequent management, the immediate physical actions to relieve pressure take precedence to mitigate acute fetal distress. Normal fetal heart rate is 110-160 beats per minute.
Choice D rationale
Prompt notification of the provider and initiation of preparations for an emergency cesarean birth are paramount because a prolapsed cord often necessitates immediate delivery to prevent prolonged fetal compromise. This action mobilizes the medical team and resources required for rapid surgical intervention, which is the definitive treatment to resolve the life-threatening situation for the fetus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Allowing a client at risk for suicide to nap with the door closed poses a significant safety concern. This practice eliminates direct visual observation, which is paramount in suicide prevention. The closed door creates an opportunity for the client to engage in self-harm behaviors unobserved, increasing the risk of a successful suicide attempt by removing immediate intervention capabilities.
Choice B rationale
While distraction can be therapeutic, allowing a client on suicide precautions to engage in crafts in their room unobserved introduces potential risks. Craft materials, if not carefully monitored and selected, could be used as instruments for self-harm. Maintaining constant, direct observation, even during seemingly benign activities, is crucial to prevent access to means for suicide.
Choice C rationale
Providing headphones for relaxing music, while potentially calming, can compromise auditory monitoring of a client on suicide precautions. The headphones can obscure sounds that might indicate distress, agitation, or self-harm attempts. Direct sensory observation, including listening for abnormal sounds, is a critical component of ensuring continuous safety and prompt intervention.
Choice D rationale
Rounding and visualizing the client every 15 minutes is a fundamental suicide precaution intervention. This frequent, direct observation allows for continuous assessment of the client's behavior, mood, and immediate environment. It minimizes opportunities for self-harm by providing consistent monitoring and enables timely intervention if any concerning signs or actions are detected, ensuring client safety.
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