A nurse is screening a client for cancer risk factors. The nurse records that the client is a 65-year-old male, clinically obese with a BMI of 31, has a history of past smoking, and drinks moderately. Which of the following is a primary risk factor for prostate cancer?
Obesity
Male sex
65 years old
Moderate alcohol use
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Obesity is a risk factor for various cancers but is not specifically a primary risk factor for prostate cancer. It can contribute to overall health problems that indirectly affect cancer risk.
Choice B reason: Being male is a primary risk factor for prostate cancer, as this type of cancer affects the prostate gland, which is present only in men. The risk increases significantly with age and other factors.
Choice C reason: Age is a significant risk factor, with the incidence of prostate cancer increasing in men over 50. However, the most defining factor is being male.
Choice D reason: Moderate alcohol use is not specifically linked to an increased risk of prostate cancer. While excessive alcohol consumption can affect overall health, it is not a primary risk factor for prostate cancer.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mr. Dominic's pain has been controlled to a manageable level, and although he experienced elevated liver enzymes, there are no acute symptoms requiring immediate intervention. He has been able to sleep, indicating that his current condition is stable.
Choice B reason: Mr. Bradford, although experiencing discomfort and blood-tinged urine, is post-surgical, and his condition is stable with managed output. Ambulating is a positive sign post-surgery, indicating recovery. His condition needs monitoring but is not the most urgent.
Choice C reason: Mr. Jennings, who had a TURBT yesterday, is experiencing bladder spasms and high volume irrigation. The output is almost equivalent to the input, which is a positive sign, but bladder spasms can indicate irritation, infection, or a blockage that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice D reason: Ms. Griffiths presents a similar case to Mr. Dominic, with controlled pain and elevated liver enzymes. She is stable overnight, and her pain level is low after medication, indicating her condition is currently managed.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Dumping syndrome is a common complication after a gastroduodenostomy, where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine. Symptoms such as weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness shortly after eating are typical indicators of this condition. This happens because the rapid passage of food causes fluid shifts in the body and a release of gut hormones that can lead to the symptoms experienced.
Choice B reason: Bile reflux gastritis involves the backflow of bile into the stomach, which can cause inflammation and discomfort. However, it does not typically present with the acute symptoms described in this scenario, such as weakness and dizziness shortly after eating. Symptoms of bile reflux gastritis usually include chronic pain, nausea, and vomiting.
Choice C reason: Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop significantly after eating. While it can cause symptoms like dizziness and weakness, it typically occurs a few hours after a meal, not 15 minutes post-consumption. The timing of the symptoms described aligns more with dumping syndrome.
Choice D reason: Malnutrition refers to the lack of proper nutrition caused by not having enough food or not eating the right things. It does not typically present with acute symptoms like those described in the question. Chronic symptoms of malnutrition include weight loss, fatigue, and weakness over a longer period.
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