A nurse is taking a class about patient safety. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements is true regarding patient safety and prevention of harm?
Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors
As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable
Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints
Medication errors are adverse events
The Correct Answer is B
A. Poorly coordinated care and nosocomial infections are examples of errors: While poorly coordinated care can lead to adverse events, nosocomial infections are typically classified as healthcare-associated infections rather than errors. Errors generally refer to mistakes made in clinical practice that can lead to harm, whereas nosocomial infections are outcomes that arise from the healthcare environment.
B. As many as 90% of medication errors are preventable: This statement is true and highlights the significant opportunity for improvement in patient safety. Recognizing that a large percentage of medication errors can be prevented underscores the importance of implementing safety protocols, effective communication, and education to reduce the likelihood of errors occurring in clinical practice.
C. Errors of execution are usually intentional and occur because of time or resource constraints: This statement is misleading, as errors of execution typically refer to mistakes made during the performance of a task rather than intentional actions. These errors often occur due to lack of knowledge, skill, or attention rather than being intentional, and they are not solely attributed to time or resource constraints.
D. Medication errors are adverse events: While medication errors can lead to adverse events, not all medication errors result in harm. An adverse event is defined as an injury caused by medical management rather than the underlying condition of the patient, so this statement is not entirely accurate. Medication errors can be classified as near misses or adverse events, depending on whether they resulted in harm to the patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Pulmonary Function Tests assess chronic respiratory conditions like COPD and asthma. In an acute pneumothorax, these tests are unnecessary as the priority is stabilizing the airway and restoring lung expansion. The client is in respiratory distress, making PFTs impractical and irrelevant at this stage.
Obtain Intravenous Access: IV access is necessary to administer fluids, medications, and potential emergency interventions. Given the client's signs of respiratory distress and hemodynamic instability (tachycardia, hypotension), IV access ensures rapid treatment in case of deterioration.
Thoracentesis: Thoracentesis is used to remove pleural fluid in conditions like pleural effusion but is not appropriate for a pneumothorax. Inserting a needle into the pleural space could worsen the lung collapse and lead to further respiratory compromise. The correct intervention is a chest tube insertion.
Obtain ABGs: ABGs provide critical information on oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. The client has tachypnea, cyanosis, and low O₂ saturation, indicating possible respiratory acidosis or hypoxemia. ABGs will guide oxygen therapy and further management.
Prepare for Insertion of a Chest Tube: A chest tube is the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax. It removes air from the pleural space, allowing lung re-expansion. Given the client's absent breath sounds, tachypnea, and hypoxia, immediate chest tube insertion is necessary to prevent further deterioration.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest: While a CT scan provides detailed lung imaging, it is not the first-line diagnostic tool for pneumothorax. A chest X-ray is usually sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. In an emergency setting, immediate intervention (such as chest tube placement) takes priority over advanced imaging.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Use of Passy Muir speaking valve: While this is an important aspect of communication for a client who has undergone a laryngectomy, it is not the highest priority at the time of discharge. The use of the speaking valve can be addressed after ensuring that the client is equipped to handle immediate safety concerns and emergencies related to their condition.
B. Phone number of healthcare provider to report complications: Providing the client with contact information for their healthcare provider is essential for ongoing support and to address any concerns that may arise after discharge. However, this information is secondary to ensuring the client can effectively communicate their condition and limitations, particularly in an emergency situation.
C. Emergency personal identification that client is unable to speak: This is the highest priority for discharge teaching because it directly addresses the client’s safety. Having emergency identification is crucial for informing healthcare providers and first responders about the client's inability to speak, especially in situations where communication may be vital for receiving appropriate care. Ensuring that the client can communicate their condition in emergencies takes precedence over other aspects of post-operative care.
D. Ability to perform tracheostomy care: While it is important for the client to be educated on tracheostomy care to ensure ongoing health and safety, this teaching can be considered after addressing immediate safety needs. The ability to care for the tracheostomy is vital but does not take priority over having emergency identification that communicates the client’s needs to others who may not be aware of their condition.
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