A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?

Require staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination

Provide an in-service on medication administration to at the nurses

Develop a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors

Renew the events lead up to each medication administration error

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Requiring staff nurses to demonstrate competency by passing a medication administration examination: While competency assessments are essential, initiating this as the first strategy may not address the root causes of medication administration errors. It's important to first understand the specific factors contributing to errors by reviewing the events leading up to each error before implementing competency assessments. This allows for a targeted approach to addressing gaps in knowledge or skills related to medication administration.
B. Providing an in-service on medication administration to all nurses: While education and training are valuable components of error reduction strategies, providing an in-service as the first step may not address the underlying system issues contributing to medication errors. Education should complement other interventions aimed at improving the medication administration process, such as system redesign or standardization of practices.
C. Developing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in medication administration errors: Implementing a quality improvement program for nurses involved in errors is important for learning from mistakes and preventing recurrence. However, developing such a program should be informed by a thorough analysis of the events leading to errors. Without understanding the root causes, it may be challenging to develop effective improvement initiatives.
D. Reviewing the events leading up to each medication administration error: This strategy is the most appropriate initial step. Conducting a detailed review of each error allows the committee to identify patterns, common factors, and system issues contributing to medication errors. By understanding the specific circumstances surrounding each error, the committee can develop targeted interventions to address root causes and prevent future errors. This approach aligns with the principles of continuous quality improvement, focusing on data-driven analysis and proactive problem-solving.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Bleeding: While haloperidol can rarely cause agranulocytosis, which may lead to bleeding, it is not a common adverse effect associated with the medication. However, clients taking antipsychotic medications like haloperidol should be monitored for any signs of bleeding, such as petechiae or bruising.
B. Cataracts: Haloperidol is not typically associated with the development of cataracts. However, long-term use of certain antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol, may increase the risk of developing metabolic side effects such as weight gain and dyslipidemia, which could indirectly contribute to the risk of cataract formation.
C. Dysrhythmias: This is the correct answer. Haloperidol has the potential to prolong the QT interval, leading to a type of dysrhythmia known as torsade’s de pointes. Therefore, clients taking haloperidol should be monitored for signs of QT prolongation, such as palpitations, syncope, or sudden cardiac arrest.
D. Pancreatitis: While rare, haloperidol has been associated with pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. However, dysrhythmias are a more common and immediate concern, especially with acute administration or in clients with predisposing factors for QT prolongation, such as electrolyte imbalances or concurrent use of other medications known to prolong the QT interval.

A. Rotavirus (RV) B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. Measles, mumps rubella (MMR) D. Varicella (VAR) E. Diphtheria, tetanus and acellular pertussis (DTaP)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Rotavirus (RV): Rotavirus vaccine is routinely recommended for infants to protect against rotavirus infection, which can cause severe diarrhea and dehydration in young children. It is typically administered orally in multiple doses starting at around 2 months of age.
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV): The HPV vaccine is not routinely administered to infants at 1 year of age. It is typically recommended for preteens and adolescents to protect against HPV-related cancers and genital warts.
C. Measles, mumps rubella (MMR): The MMR vaccine is routinely given to infants around 1 year of age to protect against measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles). It is typically administered as a single injection.
D. Varicella (VAR): The varicella vaccine is routinely recommended for infants to protect against chickenpox (varicella) infection. It is typically administered as a single injection around 1 year of age.
E. Diphtheria, tetanus and acellular pertussis (DTaP): The DTaP vaccine is routinely given to infants to protect against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough). It is typically administered as a series of injections starting at around 2 months of age.

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A nurse is serving on a continuous quality improvement (CQI) committee that has been assigned to develop a program to reduce the number of medication administration errors following a sentinel event at the facility. Which of the following strategies should the committee plan to initiate first?

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A nurse is caring for a client who has severe manifestations of schizophrenia and is medicated PRN for agitation with haloperidol. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

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