A nurse is talking with a client who has come to the clinic for HIV testing.
The nurse should explain that, after the laboratory has the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) results, it will use which of the following tests to confirm the diagnosis?
CD4+ T-cell count.
Quantitative RNA assay.
Viral load test.
Western blot analysis.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
The CD4+ T-cell count is a measure of immune function, not a confirmatory diagnostic test for HIV infection itself. These lymphocytes are the primary target of the HIV virus, and their count typically declines as the disease progresses, with a normal range generally 500 to 1,500 cells/mm. A low CD4+ count indicates immunodeficiency but is used for staging and monitoring, not confirmation.
Choice B rationale
The quantitative RNA assay, also known as the viral load test, measures the number of HIV RNA copies in the blood. While it is highly specific and sensitive for diagnosing acute infection and monitoring treatment effectiveness, it is not the standard confirmatory test after a positive ELISA, which is typically an antibody-based screening. The viral load is crucial for disease management.
Choice C rationale
The viral load test is the quantitative RNA assay described in Choice B. It measures the amount of active HIV replication and is key for predicting disease progression and assessing antiretroviral therapy success. However, the ELISA screens for HIV antibodies, and the confirmation test seeks to specifically confirm the presence of these or other viral proteins.
Choice D rationale
Western blot analysis is the traditional, more specific test used to confirm positive or indeterminate results from an initial ELISA or rapid antibody screening test. It detects antibodies to specific, individual HIV proteins, ensuring the initial positive result was not a false positive due to cross-reacting antibodies. This high specificity confirms the presence of HIV infection
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["100"]
Explanation
Answer and explanation
Step 1 is: Calculate the total infusion time in minutes. 30 min.
Step 2 is: Calculate the total drops to be infused. 200 mL× 15 gtt/mL = 3000 gtt.
Step 3 is: Calculate the gtt/min using the formula Total drops/Total minutes. 3000 gtt÷ 30 min = 100 gtt/min.
Step 4 is: Round the answer to the nearest whole number. 100 gtt/min. Final calculated answer is 100.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Talking to the client involves no direct physical contact with blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin. HIV transmission requires contact with specific body fluids, and casual conversation poses no risk of exposure, thus making the use of a gown unnecessary and inconsistent with Standard Precautions.
Choice B rationale
A dressing change involves potential contact with wound drainage, which may be serosanguinous or purulent and thus could be contaminated with blood-borne pathogens, including HIV. Applying a gown provides a liquid barrier to protect the nurse's clothing and skin from potential splatter or saturation, adhering to the principles of Standard Precautions.
Choice C rationale
Administering an IM injection involves skin puncture, but the direct exposure to body fluids is minimal and contained by the syringe/needle. A gown is not typically required for this brief, contained procedure, as the risk of extensive body fluid spray or contamination of clothing is negligible under Standard Precautions.
Choice D rationale
Administering an intermittent IV bolus involves accessing a closed intravenous system, which has a minimal risk of blood or body fluid exposure. A gown is generally not necessary unless the tubing is being disconnected or there is an anticipated high risk of blood spurt or fluid leakage beyond the scope of a brief access.
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