A nurse is teaching a client about risk factors for osteoarthritis. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
Smoking
Bacteria
Diuretics
Aging
Obesity
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A. Smoking has been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoarthritis, particularly in the knees and hips. Smoking may contribute to inflammation and oxidative stress, which can exacerbate joint damage.
D. Aging is a significant risk factor for osteoarthritis. As individuals age, the cartilage in their joints may naturally deteriorate over time, leading to the development of osteoarthritis.
E. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for osteoarthritis, particularly in weight-bearing joints such as the knees and hips. Excess body weight places increased stress on the joints, leading to accelerated wear and tear of the joint cartilage.
B. Bacteria are not typically associated with the development of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is primarily a non-inflammatory condition related to wear and tear on the joints rather than an infectious process.
C. Diuretics are medications used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema by increasing urine output. There is no direct evidence linking diuretic use to the development of osteoarthritis.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Tachypnea is a classic early manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Fat emboli can travel to the lungs and obstruct blood flow, leading to respiratory distress and hypoxemia. Tachypnea is the body's response to hypoxemia, as it attempts to increase oxygen intake by breathing more rapidly.
A. Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but it is not typically an early manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
B. tachycardia is more commonly seen due to the body's response to decreased oxygen levels and increased demand on the cardiovascular system.
C. Hypertension is not typically associated with fat embolism syndrome. Instead, hypotension can occur due to decreased cardiac output and systemic vasodilation in severe cases of fat embolism syndrome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
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