A nurse is teaching a client about skin cancer prevention. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“I will apply sunscreen before and after swimming."
“I will use sunblock with an SPF of 10 when I am outdoors."
“I will use an indoor tanning bed instead of going outside."
“I will plan to spend time tanning between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m.”
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. “I will apply sunscreen before and after swimming.” Sunscreen should be applied at least 15–30 minutes before sun exposure and reapplied after swimming or sweating, even if labeled water-resistant, to maintain UV protection.
B. “I will use sunblock with an SPF of 10 when I am outdoors.” SPF 10 offers minimal protection and is below the recommended minimum of SPF 30 for effective skin cancer prevention. Higher SPF levels provide greater protection against harmful UV rays.
C. “I will use an indoor tanning bed instead of going outside.” Indoor tanning beds emit concentrated UV radiation and are strongly associated with increased risk for skin cancer, including melanoma. They should not be used as a safer alternative to sun exposure.
D. “I will plan to spend time tanning between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m.” UV radiation is most intense between 10 a.m. and 2 p.m., making this the highest-risk period for skin damage. Sun exposure during these hours should be minimized or avoided to prevent skin cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Decreased cardiac output: The client is post–myocardial infarction and experiences chest pain with minimal exertion, tachycardia (HR 112/min), and signs of anxiety and fear. These findings suggest that myocardial function may be compromised. Decreased cardiac output is a significant risk in post-MI clients due to potential for reinfarction, ischemia, or left ventricular dysfunction.
- Respiratory failure: The client has COPD, an elevated respiratory rate (32/min), and oxygen saturation of 87% on room air, which indicates significant hypoxemia. The productive cough, fatigue, and shortness of breath increase the risk for decompensation into respiratory failure without prompt oxygen therapy and pulmonary support.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Pancytopenia: This condition involves a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. There is no evidence of bone marrow suppression, recent chemotherapy, or hematologic disorder in this client’s history.
- Neurogenic shock: Neurogenic shock results from spinal cord injury or disruption of sympathetic nervous system control. The client has no evidence of trauma or spinal pathology, and the elevated heart rate contradicts the expected bradycardia of neurogenic shock.
- Hepatic encephalopathy: This is caused by liver dysfunction, typically in clients with advanced liver disease. There are no signs of altered mental status, liver disease, or elevated ammonia levels in this case.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. First-degree atrioventricular block: A first-degree AV block is characterized by a prolonged but consistent P-R interval greater than 0.20 seconds. A P-R interval of 0.35 seconds with no dropped beats is a classic sign of this dysrhythmia.
B. Atrial fibrillation: Atrial fibrillation presents with an irregularly irregular rhythm and absent distinct P waves. The presence of a consistent P-R interval rules out atrial fibrillation.
C. Premature atrial complexes: PACs are identified by early P waves that may look different from sinus P waves, often followed by a normal QRS complex. They do not cause consistently prolonged P-R intervals.
D. Complete heart block: Complete (third-degree) heart block involves no association between P waves and QRS complexes. The atria and ventricles beat independently, which contradicts the presence of a consistent P-R interval.
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