A nurse is teaching a client how to follow a low-purine diet as prescribed by the provider for the management of gout. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the teaching?
I should choose red meat instead of poultry.
I can drink only white wine.
I should avoid eating liver and other organ meats.
I don’t need to limit the number of fruit servings each day.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Choosing red meat over poultry is incorrect, as both are high in purines, which increase uric acid levels, triggering gout attacks. Red meat, like beef, is particularly purine-rich, worsening hyperuricemia. A low-purine diet emphasizes plant-based proteins and low-purine options like eggs or dairy, indicating the client misunderstands dietary restrictions for gout management.
Choice B reason: Stating only white wine is allowed is incorrect, as all alcohol, including white wine, increases uric acid production and reduces its excretion, exacerbating gout. Beer and liquor are particularly high-risk, but no alcohol is recommended. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of the low-purine diet, which advises complete alcohol avoidance to prevent flare-ups.
Choice C reason: Avoiding liver and organ meats is correct, as these are extremely high in purines, which metabolize into uric acid, promoting gout attacks. A low-purine diet excludes organ meats, shellfish, and certain fish to reduce uric acid levels. This statement demonstrates accurate understanding of dietary restrictions essential for managing gout and preventing recurrent episodes.
Choice D reason: Not limiting fruit servings is generally true, as most fruits are low in purines. However, this statement is less specific to gout management than avoiding organ meats, which directly addresses a primary purine source. Fruits like cherries may even reduce gout risk, but this choice is less indicative of comprehensive dietary understanding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ankylosis, fusion of spinal joints, is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, not osteoporosis. Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures and deformities like kyphosis, not joint fusion. Expecting ankylosis misaligns assessment, potentially overlooking osteoporosis-related vertebral compression fractures critical for managing mobility and pain in older adults.
Choice B reason: Kyphosis, an exaggerated thoracic spine curvature, is common in osteoporosis due to vertebral compression fractures from weakened bones. These fractures collapse anteriorly, causing a hunchback appearance, affecting posture and balance. Recognizing kyphosis guides interventions like bracing or bisphosphonates to prevent further fractures and improve quality of life.
Choice C reason: Scoliosis, lateral spine curvature, is typically congenital or idiopathic, not directly caused by osteoporosis. While osteoporosis may exacerbate existing scoliosis through fractures, it’s not a primary deformity. Expecting scoliosis risks misdiagnosis, diverting focus from osteoporosis-related kyphosis and its management, like calcium supplementation or physical therapy.
Choice D reason: Lordosis, exaggerated lumbar curvature, is not typical in osteoporosis. Osteoporosis primarily affects thoracic vertebrae, causing kyphosis from compression fractures. Lordosis may occur in other conditions like muscular imbalances, but expecting it in osteoporosis misguides assessment, delaying interventions for fracture prevention and spinal stability in older adults.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Compartment syndrome involves increased pressure within a muscle compartment, causing pain, swelling, and neurovascular compromise. It typically presents with localized symptoms like severe pain and paresthesia, not systemic signs like tachycardia, pallor, or confusion. These findings in a humerus fracture suggest a broader complication, making this less likely.
Choice B reason: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) causes localized swelling, pain, and redness, primarily in the lower limbs. Systemic symptoms like tachycardia or confusion are rare unless DVT progresses to pulmonary embolism. A humerus fracture is less associated with DVT, and the patient’s symptoms point to a more acute, systemic issue.
Choice C reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, often triggered by sepsis or trauma. While possible in severe trauma, it typically presents with bleeding or bruising, not primarily tachycardia, pallor, and confusion. These symptoms align more closely with fat embolism in the context of a long bone fracture.
Choice D reason: Fat embolism syndrome, common in long bone fractures like the humerus, occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream, obstructing pulmonary or cerebral vessels. This causes tachycardia, pallor (from hypoxia), and confusion (from cerebral hypoxia). These systemic symptoms match the patient’s presentation, making fat embolism the most likely complication requiring urgent intervention.
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