A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic migraines about a new prescription for sumatriptan. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"You should take a second dose if there is no relief within fifteen minutes after the initial dose."
"You may experience low blood pressure while taking this medication."
"You should have complete relief in six hours after taking this medication."
“You may experience muscle cramps as a potential adverse effect of the medication."
The Correct Answer is D
A. "You should take a second dose if there is no relief within fifteen minutes after the initial dose." The second dose of sumatriptan should not be taken sooner than 2 hours after the first dose if there is no relief or if the migraine returns. Taking it too soon increases the risk of adverse effects.
B. "You may experience low blood pressure while taking this medication." Sumatriptan more commonly causes hypertension, not hypotension. It can cause vasoconstriction, which may elevate blood pressure and poses risks, especially in clients with cardiovascular disease.
C. "You should have complete relief in six hours after taking this medication." Relief from sumatriptan is often experienced within 1–2 hours after administration. While not all clients achieve complete relief, the medication acts quickly, and six hours is not the expected timeframe.
D. “You may experience muscle cramps as a potential adverse effect of the medication." Muscle cramps or tightness in the chest, neck, or limbs can occur due to vasoconstriction caused by sumatriptan. This is a known side effect and should be reported if severe or persistent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "You have already consented to this treatment, so you must continue." This response disregards the client’s autonomy. Clients have the right to withdraw consent and stop treatment at any time, even after initially agreeing to it.
B. "I will let your doctor know that you want to discontinue treatment." This response respects the client’s right to make decisions about their care and ensures that the healthcare team is informed to support the client appropriately. It demonstrates advocacy and ethical practice.
C. "You should discuss this with your family and see if they agree." While family input can be helpful, the final decision rests with the client, not their family. This response may undermine the client’s autonomy.
D. "I know this treatment is difficult for you, but you will feel better." This is a minimizing statement that may come across as dismissive. It does not acknowledge the client’s feelings or support their decision-making process.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
- Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not applicable for this postpartum client. There is no indication of uterine contractions needing suppression.
- Intravenous antibiotic: The client exhibits signs of postpartum endometritis—including fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and a very high WBC count (33,000/mm³). These findings strongly support the need for IV antibiotics to treat the infection.
- Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This device is used for managing postpartum hemorrhage, which is not present in this case. The client’s lochia is moderate, not excessive, and her uterus is responding to massage.
- Kleihauer-Betke test: This test is used to detect fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage, particularly in Rh-negative mothers after trauma or potential placental separation. It is not relevant in the context of postpartum infection.
- Increase in daily fluid intake: The client is febrile and shows signs of systemic infection. Increased fluids support hydration, promote recovery, and help manage the effects of fever and infection, making this an appropriate supportive measure.
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