A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypertonia (increased muscle tone) is not a manifestation of hypoglycemia in a newborn. Instead, hypotonia (decreased muscle tone) is more characteristic.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. Jitteriness is a common sign of hypoglycemia in a newborn. It may be accompanied by other symptoms like poor feeding, tremors, and irritability.
Choice C rationale:
Acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the hands and feet) is a normal finding in newborns and is not specifically associated with hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
Generalized petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin) are not indicative of hypoglycemia but may be associated with other medical conditions.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.