A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Having many nodules in the upper outer quadrants of the breasts is a common and expected finding in breast tissue and is not necessarily a cause for concern.
Choice B rationale:
Bilateral breast tenderness with palpation can be a normal finding, especially in young women with hormonal changes. It is not of immediate concern unless it is accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Slight differences in breast size are often normal and not necessarily concerning, especially in young women whose breast development may not have fully stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the breast raises concerns for a potential breast mass or tumor. This finding requires further evaluation and investigation by a healthcare provider to determine its nature and possible malignancy. Early detection of breast abnormalities is crucial for timely management and improved outcomes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should first massage the client's fundus to address the excessive vaginal bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract and prevents further bleeding. Excessive postpartum bleeding may indicate uterine atony, which is a leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the fundus to promote uterine contractions and reduce bleeding.
Choice A rationale:
Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Trendelenburg position) is not the priority action in this situation. Fundal massage takes precedence because it directly addresses the cause of the excessive bleeding. While Trendelenburg position might be used in some situations to increase blood flow to vital organs, it is not the first-line intervention for postpartum bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action for excessive vaginal bleeding. While monitoring urine output is essential, the immediate concern is controlling the bleeding by massaging the fundus.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin may be indicated if fundal massage alone is insufficient to control bleeding. However, massaging the fundus should be the first action taken to promote uterine contractions. Oxytocin can be administered afterward, if needed, under the direction of a healthcare provider.
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