A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Nulliparity (never having given birth) is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never had children have a higher risk compared to those who have. This is believed to be associated with the number of ovulatory cycles a woman experiences throughout her lifetime.
Choice B rationale:
History of breastfeeding does not have a direct link to ovarian cancer risk. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of both breast and ovarian cancer due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation.
Choice C rationale:
Previous use of oral contraceptives is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. Women who have used birth control pills have a lower risk compared to those who have never used them. The protective effect is believed to be due to the suppression of ovulation.
Choice D rationale:
History of breast cancer is not a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Although both cancers are related to the reproductive system, they have distinct risk factors and characteristics.
Choice E rationale:
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a potential risk factor for ovarian cancer, especially long-term use. The hormones used in HRT can affect hormone levels and may increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the client to wash their hands before breastfeeding helps prevent the transmission of infection to the breast and the baby.
Choice B rationale:
Teaching the client about proper latching-on techniques ensures effective breastfeeding, reduces the risk of nipple damage, and promotes comfort for both the client and the baby.
Choice C rationale:
Encouraging the client to alternate breastfeeding with formula feeding is not recommended for a client with mastitis. Mastitis is an inflammation of the breast tissue often caused by bacterial infection, and continuing breastfeeding helps to clear the infection and maintain milk supply.
Choice D rationale:
Instructing the client to avoid using a breast pump is not necessary in this situation. Breastfeeding and pumping can continue to help drain the breast adequately, which is essential for resolving mastitis.
Choice E rationale:
Encouraging the client to allow their nipples to air dry after feedings helps promote healing and prevents further irritation to the nipples.
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