A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Administering oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion is not appropriate when the nurse notes an umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal compromise, and administering oxytocin could worsen the situation.
Choice B rationale:
Applying oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is not the priority when an umbilical cord prolapse is detected. The focus should be on relieving pressure on the cord and changing the client's position to alleviate the compression.
Choice C rationale:
Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter is not appropriate when there is an umbilical cord prolapse. The immediate concern is the potential compromise of fetal blood flow, and addressing the cord prolapse takes precedence over any other interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting the client into the knee-chest position is the correct action when an umbilical cord prolapse is observed during a vaginal exam. This position helps to alleviate pressure on the cord by moving the presenting part of the fetus off the cord and can prevent further fetal distress until more definitive interventions can be performed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rh(D) immune globulin should be seen soon but not necessarily first. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers with Rh- positive infants to prevent isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale:
A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness is likely experiencing normal postpartum breast engorgement. This client can be attended to after the client with more urgent symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output might have diuresis, which is a common postpartum physiological change. Although this requires assessment, it is not as urgent as the client in choice D.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should see the client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour first because excessive postpartum bleeding could indicate hemorrhage, a potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial in this situation.
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