A nurse is teaching a group of students about effective use of the vaginal contraceptive ring.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Leave the ring inserted for 3 weeks followed by a week without the ring.
Contact your provider for a new ring if you gain or lose more than 4.5 kg (10 lb).
Wash the ring with warm soap and water after each use.
Insert the ring up to 6 hours before sexual intercourse.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The vaginal contraceptive ring is designed for cyclic use, specifically to be left inserted for 3 consecutive weeks, followed by a 1-week ring-free interval. This regimen allows for a withdrawal bleed during the ring-free week, mimicking a natural menstrual cycle while maintaining contraceptive efficacy by providing continuous hormone release for 21 days.
Choice B rationale
Body weight fluctuations of 4.5 kg (10 lb) do not significantly impact the effectiveness of the vaginal contraceptive ring. The ring delivers a localized and consistent dose of hormones that is not dependent on systemic absorption influenced by minor weight changes. Therefore, contacting a provider for a new ring due to this weight change is unnecessary.
Choice C rationale
The vaginal contraceptive ring should not be washed with soap and water after each use. The ring is a single-use, disposable device designed to be inserted and remain in place for the full 3-week duration. Washing it could potentially degrade the material or interfere with the controlled release of hormones, compromising its efficacy.
Choice D rationale
The vaginal contraceptive ring does not need to be inserted immediately before sexual intercourse. It provides continuous contraceptive protection as long as it is inserted and used correctly according to the 3-week in, 1-week out schedule. Its efficacy is not tied to the timing of individual sexual acts.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The client exhibits signs consistent with severe preeclampsia including blood pressure above 160/110 mm Hg, 3+ to 4+ deep tendon reflexes, and positive clonus, which are neurological indicators of central nervous system irritability. These findings increase the risk for eclamptic seizures. The headache, visual disturbances (“spots”), and epigastric pain further indicate imminent seizure risk from cerebral edema and vasospasm. Early intervention is crucial to prevent progression to eclampsia.
Choice B rationale: Elevated blood pressure combined with preeclampsia significantly raises the risk of abruptio placentae, the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. This occurs because hypertension causes vasospasm and weakening of the placental attachment, increasing placental insufficiency and hemorrhage. The client’s edema and headache indicate vascular endothelial dysfunction, contributing to this risk. Abruptio placentae is a critical obstetric emergency requiring urgent recognition.
Choice C rationale: The client’s symptoms and signs of hypertension, headache, epigastric pain, and elevated blood pressure with edema suggest progression toward HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets). Although labs are not provided, the clinical presentation fits the syndrome’s prodromal phase. HELLP syndrome is a severe variant of preeclampsia with hepatic involvement, which can cause multiorgan dysfunction and increased maternal-fetal morbidity if untreated.
Choice D rationale: Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typical in preeclampsia or related hypertensive disorders; instead, oliguria (decreased urine output below 30 mL/hr) may occur due to renal impairment. The client’s urine output of 25–55 mL/hr borders low normal, signaling possible kidney hypoperfusion, but polyuria is not a recognized complication here. Polyuria is more associated with diabetes or diuretic therapy, not hypertensive pregnancy disorders.
Choice E rationale: Ketoacidosis is metabolic acidosis due to ketone accumulation from uncontrolled diabetes or starvation. This client has no history or symptoms of diabetes or starvation, and no laboratory evidence of hyperglycemia or acidosis is reported. Ketoacidosis is not a complication linked to preeclampsia or hypertension in pregnancy and is therefore unlikely in this case.
Choice F rationale: Fetal macrosomia is excessive fetal growth usually related to maternal diabetes or obesity. This client has no indications of gestational diabetes or excessive fetal growth; fetal heart rate and contractions are within normal limits, and no mention of abnormal fundal height or ultrasound findings is given. The mild hypertension and edema do not predispose to macrosomia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The bladder is distended upon palpation: A distended bladder suggests urinary retention, not effective voiding. This may impair uterine contraction and increase the risk of hemorrhage.
B. The uterine fundus is 2 cm above the umbilicus: A high-rising fundus may indicate a full bladder that is displacing the uterus, often due to incomplete voiding.
C. The client does not feel the urge to urinate: Lack of urge may indicate altered bladder sensation, a potential complication after catheter removal and childbirth.
D. The client urinates 30 mL/hr: Urine output of ≥30 mL/hr is considered adequate and reflects effective voiding and kidney function, especially in the postpartum period.
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