A nurse is teaching a patient who is 15 weeks pregnant and is to undergo an amniocentesis.
The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to identify which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
Cephalopelvic disproportion.
Anomalies in fetal chromosomes.
Neural tube defects.
Fetal gender.
Rh incompatibility.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A rationale
Cephalopelvic disproportion refers to a mismatch between the size of the fetal head and the mother’s pelvis, making it difficult for the baby to pass through the birth canal. This condition is not identified through amniocentesis.
Choice B rationale
Amniocentesis is a procedure where a small amount of amniotic fluid, which contains fetal tissues, is sampled and tested. This test can indeed identify anomalies in fetal chromosomes. It can detect genetic disorders such as Down syndrome, spina bifida, and cystic fibrosis.
Choice C rationale
Neural tube defects, such as spina bifida, can be detected through amniocentesis. These defects occur when the neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord, fails to close completely during the first few weeks of embryonic development.
Choice D rationale
Amniocentesis can also determine the fetal gender. This is because the test analyzes the chromosomes present in the fetal cells found in the amniotic fluid. Males have XY chromosomes, while females have XX chromosomes.
Choice E rationale
Rh incompatibility is a condition where the mother’s Rh blood type and the baby’s Rh blood type are incompatible. This can lead to the mother’s immune system attacking the Rh positive cells of the baby. However, Rh incompatibility is not detected through amniocentesis. It is typically identified through blood tests.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A negative rubella titer does not necessarily mean that the client is not currently experiencing a rubella infection. The titer measures immunity to the disease, not the presence of an active infection.
Choice B rationale
A negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to the rubella virus. This means that she has not been vaccinated against the disease or has not had it in the past.
Choice C rationale
While a rubella vaccination could be beneficial for a client with a negative rubella titer, it is not typically given during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk to the fetus. The rubella vaccine is a live vaccine, and while there is no evidence of harm to the fetus, it is generally avoided during pregnancy as a precaution.
Choice D rationale
This is the correct interpretation of the data. A client with a negative rubella titer should receive a rubella immunization following delivery to protect against future infections.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Douching is not recommended as it can disrupt the normal balance of bacteria in the vagina and can lead to infections. Therefore, it is unlikely that a healthcare provider would prescribe this as a treatment for vaginal itching and discharge.
Choice B rationale
While avoiding alcohol for 72 hours after treatment is a common instruction when taking certain medications, it does not address the client’s symptoms of vaginal itching and discharge.
Choice C rationale
An oatmeal sitz bath can help soothe irritated skin, but it does not treat the underlying cause of vaginal itching and discharge.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial vaginosis, a condition that can cause vaginal itching and discharge. Therefore, it is likely that the healthcare provider would prescribe this medication.
Choice E rationale
While it is important for sexual partners to be treated if a sexually transmitted infection is diagnosed, the client’s symptoms and medical record information provided do not indicate a sexually transmitted infection. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate.
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