A nurse is teaching a postpartum client how to do muscle-clenching (Kegel) exercises for the perineum. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to do these exercises?" Which reason would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?
reduces lochia
promotes uterine involution
improves pelvic floor tone
alleviates perineal pain
The Correct Answer is C
A. Lochia is the normal postpartum vaginal discharge of blood and tissue, and its duration or volume is not affected by Kegel exercises.
B. Uterine involution ,the shrinking of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy size ,is a natural physiological process and is not influenced by Kegel exercises.
C. Kegel exercises specifically target the pelvic floor muscles, which may be weakened during pregnancy and childbirth. These exercises help strengthen the muscles, support pelvic organs, and prevent issues such as urinary incontinence.
D. While improved muscle tone may eventually support healing, these exercises are not a direct method for pain relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "This is meconium stool and is normal for a newborn." is the correct and most appropriate response. Meconium is the newborn’s first stool, typically passed within the first 24 to 48 hours of life. It is black, tarry, and sticky in appearance and consists of materials the baby ingested while in the womb, such as amniotic fluid, mucus, and cells. It is completely normal and expected.
B. "You probably took iron during your pregnancy and that is what causes this type of stool." is incorrect. While iron supplements can darken adult stools, meconium is unrelated to maternal iron intake and is a normal physiological occurrence in all newborns.
C. “This is unusual, and I need to report this to your pediatrician." is incorrect and would be alarming to the parent unnecessarily. This is a normal finding, not something requiring physician notification.
D. "I'll take a sample and check it for possible bleeding" is also inappropriate unless there are other signs of concern (e.g., blood in stool later on). Meconium is not indicative of bleeding and does not warrant testing under normal circumstances.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 50mg/hr is not the correct unit for volume, it’s the dose in milligrams.
B. 50 mL/hr is the correct volume to administer to achieve the ordered dose of 2g/hr. Determine the concentration of the solution: The supply is 10g in 250mL. This means the concentration is 10g / 250mL, or 0.04g/mL (since 10g = 10,000mg, this is equivalent to 40mg/mL). Convert the ordered dose to match the concentration: The order is for 2g/hr (which is 2,000mg/hr). Calculate the volume to be infused to deliver the desired dose: Dose = Ordered/concentration= 2000/40= 50 mL/hr
C. 5mg/mL refers to the concentration, not the rate of infusion.
D. 5 mL/hr would administer only 200mg/hr, which is much lower than the ordered dose of 2g/hr.
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