A nurse is teaching a postpartum client how to do muscle-clenching (Kegel) exercises for the perineum. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to do these exercises?" Which reason would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?

reduces lochia

promotes uterine involution

improves pelvic floor tone

alleviates perineal pain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Lochia is the normal postpartum vaginal discharge of blood and tissue, and its duration or volume is not affected by Kegel exercises.
B. Uterine involution ,the shrinking of the uterus to its pre-pregnancy size ,is a natural physiological process and is not influenced by Kegel exercises.
C. Kegel exercises specifically target the pelvic floor muscles, which may be weakened during pregnancy and childbirth. These exercises help strengthen the muscles, support pelvic organs, and prevent issues such as urinary incontinence.
D. While improved muscle tone may eventually support healing, these exercises are not a direct method for pain relief.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus would be abnormal and may indicate uterine distension due to retained placental fragments or a full bladder, especially this long after delivery.

B. Two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus is typically expected 24 hours or more after delivery, not at 12 hours postpartum.

C. At the level of the umbilicus is normal and expected at about 12 hours postpartum. After delivery, the uterus rises slightly and is generally found at or near the umbilicus before it begins to descend (involute) by about 1 fingerbreadth per day.

D. Four fingerbreadths below the umbilicus would be expected several days postpartum, not within the first 12 hours.

A. Polyhydramnios B. Placenta previa C. Placental abruption D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive amount of amniotic fluid and typically presents with maternal discomfort, dyspnea, and possibly preterm labor, but not with vaginal bleeding as a primary symptom.

B. Placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis based on the assessment findings. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, a soft, nontender uterus, no contractions, and a normal fetal heart rate. The bleeding may start spontaneously and often recurs. This fits the client's clinical picture precisely.

C. Placental abruption usually involves painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and may be associated with uterine contractions or abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. The absence of pain and uterine tenderness in this case makes placental abruption less likely.

D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy would not be expected at 33 weeks’ gestation. Ectopic pregnancies typically present in the first trimester and are accompanied by severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock if ruptured.

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A nurse is teaching a postpartum client how to do muscle-clenching (Kegel) exercises for the perineum. The client asks the nurse, "Why do I need to do these exercises?" Which reason would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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