Twenty minutes after birth, a baby begins to move his head from side to side, making eye contact with the mother, and pushes his tongue out several times. The nurse interprets this as:
evidence that the newborn is becoming chilled.
a good time to initiate breast-feeding.
the period of decreased responsiveness preceding sleep.
A sign that the infant is being overstimulated.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Evidence that the newborn is becoming chilled would typically include signs such as cool skin, mottling, or acrocyanosis ,not active behaviors like head movement and eye contact.
B. A good time to initiate breast-feeding is correct. The described behaviors ,eye contact, head movement, and tongue thrusting, are characteristic of the first period of reactivity, which occurs within the first 30 minutes after birth. During this time, the newborn is alert, responsive, and exhibits strong rooting and sucking reflexes, making it an ideal window to begin breastfeeding.
C. The period of decreased responsiveness preceding sleep typically occurs after the first period of reactivity and is marked by reduced activity and interest in feeding, not alert behaviors.
D. A sign that the infant is being overstimulated would usually involve signs like gaze aversion, hiccupping, or flailing ,not purposeful movements or eye contact.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 8.4 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range and may indicate magnesium toxicity. Levels greater than 7.5–8 mEq/L can lead to loss of deep tendon reflexes, and higher levels can cause respiratory depression and cardiac arrest.
B. 6.1 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate when used to treat severe preeclampsia, which is generally 4.8–8.4 mEq/L (or 4–7 mEq/L depending on the source and unit of measurement). This level is considered safe and effective for preventing seizures.
C. 10.8 mEq/L is too high and indicates magnesium toxicity, placing the patient at risk for serious complications like respiratory or cardiac arrest.
D. 3.3 mEq/L is below the therapeutic range, suggesting that the dose may be inadequate to prevent eclamptic seizures in a woman with severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive amount of amniotic fluid and typically presents with maternal discomfort, dyspnea, and possibly preterm labor, but not with vaginal bleeding as a primary symptom.
B. Placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis based on the assessment findings. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, a soft, nontender uterus, no contractions, and a normal fetal heart rate. The bleeding may start spontaneously and often recurs. This fits the client's clinical picture precisely.
C. Placental abruption usually involves painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and may be associated with uterine contractions or abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. The absence of pain and uterine tenderness in this case makes placental abruption less likely.
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy would not be expected at 33 weeks’ gestation. Ectopic pregnancies typically present in the first trimester and are accompanied by severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock if ruptured.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.