A nurse is teaching about safe handling of formula to a client who is postpartum and chooses to bottle feed her newborn.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"I can keep a can of concentrated formula in the refrigerator for 3 days after I open it.”
"I can dilute the ready-to-feed formula with water when my baby wants more than 4 ounces at a feeding.”
"I should boil tap water for 2 minutes and cool it before I mix it with the powdered formula.”
"I will be sure that all of my bottles contain BPA.”
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Keeping a can of concentrated formula in the refrigerator for 3 days after opening it is not safe. Once a can of formula is opened, it should be used within 24 hours and stored in the refrigerator. After 24 hours, any leftover formula should be discarded to prevent the risk of bacterial contamination.
Choice B rationale:
Diluting ready-to-feed formula with water is incorrect. Ready-to-feed formula is already prepared and does not need to be diluted further. Adding water to ready-to-feed formula can dilute its nutritional content and may not provide the necessary nutrients for the baby.
Choice C rationale:
Boiling tap water for 2 minutes and cooling it before mixing it with powdered formula is the correct method for safe formula preparation. Boiling the water kills harmful bacteria and ensures the formula is safe for the baby to consume. It is essential to cool the boiled water before mixing it with powdered formula to reach an appropriate feeding temperature.
Choice D rationale:
Ensuring that all bottles contain BPA (bisphenol A) is not a relevant consideration for formula preparation. BPA is a chemical that was previously used in some plastics, including baby bottles, but has been banned in baby bottles and sippy cups in several countries due to its potential health risks. Most modern baby bottles are BPA-free, and this statement does not address the safe handling and preparation of formula for the baby.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Explore the client's reasons for refusing the treatment.
- A. Documenting the client's refusal in the medical record is an important action, but not the first one. The nurse should first try to understand the client's perspective and address any concerns or misconceptions they might have about the blood transfusion. This choice is incorrect.
- B. Honoring the client's decision to refuse the blood transfusion is a respectful and ethical action, but not the first one. The nurse should first attempt to educate and persuade the client about the benefits and risks of the treatment, and respect their autonomy only after ensuring that they have made an informed decision. This choice is incorrect.
- C. Exploring the client's reasons for refusing the treatment is the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should use effective communication skills to elicit the client's beliefs, values, fears, and preferences regarding the blood transfusion, and provide factual and evidencebased information to address any knowledge gaps or misconceptions. The nurse should also assess the client's decision-making capacity and determine if they are competent to refuse the treatment. This choice is correct.
- D. Discussing the client's refusal with the provider is an appropriate action, but not the first one. The nurse should first try to resolve the issue with the client directly, and involve the provider only if they are unable to do so or if there are legal or ethical implications that require further consultation. This choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
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