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A nurse manager on a labor and delivery unit is discussing care of clients who have vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager make?

"Administer corticosteroids if the client is at more than 34 weeks of gestation."

"Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR and uterine contractions."

"Administer terbutaline subcutaneously if the client experiences uterine atony."

"Perform a vaginal exam to determine cervical dilation."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Administering corticosteroids is relevant for clients at risk of preterm labor, not specifically for placenta previa.

Choice B rationale:

Placenta previa can lead to bleeding and potential fetal distress. Continuous monitoring of fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine contractions is essential to promptly identify any signs of distress.

Choice C rationale:

Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to suppress uterine contractions, and it's not relevant for managing uterine atony associated with placenta previa.

Choice D rationale:

Performing a vaginal exam can further increase the risk of bleeding in cases of placenta previa and is generally contraindicated due to the risk of disturbing the placental site.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Decreased muscle mass can be a normal age-related change in older adults and is not necessarily indicative of elder maltreatment.

Choice B rationale:

White circles surrounding the cornea (arcus senilis) is a common age- related finding and is not necessarily indicative of elder maltreatment.

Choice C rationale:

The presence of urine odor on the client's clothes could indicate neglect or inadequate care and should be further investigated.

Choice D rationale:

Nodules on the metacarpal joints may be related to osteoarthritis, which is a common condition in older adults and may not necessarily indicate elder maltreatment.

A. Decreased albumin B. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. Increased hematocrit D. Increased protein

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Inflammatory bowel disease, including Crohn's disease, can lead to decreased albumin levels due to malabsorption and inflammation.

Choice B rationale:

Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is more likely in inflammatory conditions.

Choice C rationale:

Decreased hematocrit is more common due to potential blood loss.

Choice D rationale:

Decreased protein levels are expected due to inflammation and malabsorption.

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A nurse manager on a labor and delivery unit is discussing care of clients who have vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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