A nurse is instructing a client about medications that can cause erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications should the nurse include in the teaching?

Sertraline

Vancomycin

Topiramate

Polyethylene glycol

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Sertraline is an antidepressant medication known as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). One of the potential side effects of SSRIs is sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction.

Choice B rationale:

Vancomycin is an antibiotic and is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction.

Choice C rationale:

Topiramate is an anticonvulsant medication and is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction.

Choice D rationale:

Polyethylene glycol is a laxative and is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Upper abdominal pain is not a typical manifestation of diverticulitis. It is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract.

Choice B rationale:

Rationale: Diverticulitis is characterized by inflammation or infection of diverticula (small pouches) in the colon. Manifestations of diverticulitis can include abdominal pain (usually left lower quadrant), fever, nausea, vomiting, and changes in bowel habits.

Abdominal distension may indicate worsening inflammation or complication of diverticulitis.

Choice C rationale: Clay-colored stools are more characteristic of liver or bile duct disorders, not diverticulitis.

Choice D rationale: Gastric reflux is not a common manifestation of diverticulitis. It is more related to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or other upper gastrointestinal issues.

A. Blood pressure 78/60 mm Hg B. Weight loss 20% over last 6 months C. Apical pulse rate 50/min D. Body temperature 35.5° C (95.9°F)

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A blood pressure of 78/60 mm Hg is indicative of hypotension which is a common complication of anorexia nervosa. However. the low body temperature takes precedence

Choice B rationale:

Weight loss of 20% over the last 6 months is concerning but may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission.

Choice C rationale:

An apical pulse rate of 50/min is bradycardia, which can be a result of anorexia nervosa, but it may not be an immediate indicator for acute care admission unless the client is symptomatic.

Choice D rationale:

A body temperature of 35.5°C (95.9°F) is below a normal range signfyng hypothermia which needs immedate intervention.

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A nurse is instructing a client about medications that can cause erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diverticulosis about identifying manifestations of diverticulitis. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse in an urgent care facility is assessing a client who is currently receiving outpatient treatment for anorexia nervosa. Which of the following client data should indicate to the nurse that the client requires acute care admission?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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