A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is reconciling a newly admitted client's medication. The nurse is reviewing the process of medication reconciliation with a newly licensed nurse. The nurse should include which of the following information?
The American Hospital Association requires accredited facilities to have protocols in place requiring medication reconciliation
The nurse who performs medication reconciliation is demonstrating the ethical principal of veracity:
The International Council of Nurses Code of Ethics stipulates that the nurse performs medication reconciliation when a client is admitted to a facility, is transferred to another facility, and when a client is discharged from a facility
The purpose of medication reconciliation is to prevent adverse medication reactions
The Correct Answer is D
Answer: D
Rationale:
A. The American Hospital Association requires accredited facilities to have protocols in place requiring medication reconciliation: The American Hospital Association does advocate for medication reconciliation as part of safety protocols, but the primary focus of medication reconciliation is not solely based on AHA requirements. It is more about improving patient safety and preventing errors.
B. The nurse who performs medication reconciliation is demonstrating the ethical principle of veracity: While medication reconciliation involves accurate and truthful communication, it primarily serves to ensure safety and accuracy in medication management rather than directly demonstrating the ethical principle of veracity.
C. The International Council of Nurses Code of Ethics stipulates that the nurse performs medication reconciliation when a client is admitted to a facility, is transferred to another facility, and when a client is discharged from a facility: Although medication reconciliation is crucial at these points of care transition, the International Council of Nurses Code of Ethics does not explicitly mandate this process.
D. The purpose of medication reconciliation is to prevent adverse medication reactions: Medication reconciliation aims to ensure accurate medication lists and prevent errors, which in turn helps prevent adverse medication reactions. This aligns with the primary goal of the process, which is to enhance medication safety.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Inverted P wave: An inverted P wave may indicate atrial depolarization abnormalities but is not typically associated with hypokalemia. It can be seen in conditions such as atrial enlargement or atrial ischemia. However, in hypokalemia, the P wave may become flattened or have a decreased amplitude, but it is less likely to be inverted.
B. Wide QRS: A wide QRS complex may indicate conduction abnormalities or bundle branch blocks, but it is not specifically associated with hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are more commonly seen in conditions such as bundle branch blocks or electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia tends to cause a prolongation of the QT interval rather than widening of the QRS complex.
C. Elevated ST segment: An elevated ST segment is typically associated with myocardial injury or infarction, not hypokalemia. It can be indicative of conditions such as myocardial ischemia or pericarditis. In hypokalemia, ST segment changes are more likely to be flattened or depressed rather than elevated.
D. Abnormally prominent U wave: An abnormally prominent U wave is a classic EKG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to the appearance of U waves following the T wave. These U waves can become more pronounced as potassium levels decrease. Therefore, an abnormally prominent U wave is a significant indicator of hypokalemia on an EKG, especially in a patient with prolonged vomiting, which can lead to potassium depletion. Thus, it is the most pertinent abnormality to interpret in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Notify the client's provider: This option might be considered if there are signs of postpartum hemorrhage, such as excessive bleeding, signs of shock, or a boggy uterus that does not respond to massage. However, in this scenario, the fundus is midline and firm, which indicates appropriate uterine contraction. Therefore, notifying the provider at this point may not be necessary.
B. Encourage the client to empty her bladder: Encouraging the client to empty her bladder is always important in the postpartum period, as a full bladder can impede uterine contraction. However, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a midline and firm fundus suggests that uterine involution is progressing well. While encouraging the client to empty her bladder is appropriate, it may not be the priority in this situation.
C. Increase the frequency of fundal massage immediately: Fundal massage is typically performed to promote uterine involution and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the fundus is already midline and firm, indicating adequate contraction. Increasing the frequency of fundal massage unnecessarily could cause discomfort to the client and is not indicated based on the current assessment findings.
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client: This is the most appropriate action at this time. The presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a midline and firm fundus suggests that the uterus is involuting properly. Documenting the findings allows for accurate documentation of the client's condition and continued monitoring for any changes or developments. If the client's condition changes or if there are signs of postpartum hemorrhage, further action, such as notifying the provider, can be taken.
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