A nurse on a postpartum unit is caring for a client.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The nurse should anticipate a provider's prescription for an
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
- Tocolytic medication: Tocolytics are used to suppress preterm labor, which is not applicable for this postpartum client. There is no indication of uterine contractions needing suppression.
- Intravenous antibiotic: The client exhibits signs of postpartum endometritis—including fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and a very high WBC count (33,000/mm³). These findings strongly support the need for IV antibiotics to treat the infection.
- Intrauterine tamponade balloon: This device is used for managing postpartum hemorrhage, which is not present in this case. The client’s lochia is moderate, not excessive, and her uterus is responding to massage.
- Kleihauer-Betke test: This test is used to detect fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage, particularly in Rh-negative mothers after trauma or potential placental separation. It is not relevant in the context of postpartum infection.
- Increase in daily fluid intake: The client is febrile and shows signs of systemic infection. Increased fluids support hydration, promote recovery, and help manage the effects of fever and infection, making this an appropriate supportive measure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The client calls the office multiple times per day to speak with their provider. This behavior may indicate anxiety or dependence, but it does not reflect rationalization, which involves making excuses to justify behavior.
B. The client states, "I only act this way because my partner makes me so angry." This is a clear example of rationalization, where the client is attempting to justify unacceptable behavior by blaming it on someone else rather than taking personal responsibility.
C. The client does not listen to the nurse during a discussion about their diagnosis. This may indicate denial or avoidance, not rationalization. The client may be overwhelmed and unwilling to accept the diagnosis.
D. The client reports that they get upset with their family members for "no apparent reason." This may suggest emotional dysregulation or projection, but it lacks the clear element of excuse-making that defines rationalization.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.
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