A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has unstable angina and is reporting chest pain with a severity of 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. The nurse administers 1 sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. After 5 min, the client states that his chest pain is now a severity of 2. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Initiate a peripheral IV.

Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.

Call the Rapid Response Team.

Obtain an ECG.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Initiate a peripheral IV:

Initiating a peripheral intravenous (IV) line may be necessary for clients with unstable angina to facilitate the administration of medications and fluids, especially if there is a need for further interventions or if the client's condition deteriorates. However, in this case, the client's chest pain has improved after receiving nitroglycerin, and there is no immediate indication for IV access based on the information provided.

B. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet:

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve chest pain (angina) by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. The initial response of the client's chest pain severity decreasing from 6 to 2 after one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet indicates a positive response to the medication. However, it's important to assess the client's response further before administering additional doses of nitroglycerin, especially considering the potential for hypotension or other adverse effects.

C. Call the Rapid Response Team:

The Rapid Response Team (RRT) is typically called in situations where there is a concern for a critical event or deterioration of a client's condition that requires immediate intervention. In this scenario, the client's chest pain has improved after nitroglycerin administration, and there are no indications of an acute critical event at this time. Therefore, calling the RRT is not warranted based on the client's current status.

D. Obtain an ECG:

An ECG can be helpful to assess for potential ischemia or other cardiac abnormalities. However, it's not the most urgent action when the client is responding positively to nitroglycerin. It can be done while monitoring the client's response to the second dose.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This result indicates muscle injury but does not specify the source.

This statement is partly correct. An elevated troponin I level does indicate muscle injury, specifically damage to the heart muscle. However, troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle, so an elevated level would indeed specify the source as cardiac or myocardial injury.

B. Because the client has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury.

This statement is incorrect. A history of unstable angina does not diminish the significance of an elevated troponin I level. In fact, unstable angina is itself a serious condition that can lead to myocardial injury or heart attack, and an elevated troponin I level in this context indicates ongoing or recent myocardial damage.

C. This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours.

This statement is not entirely accurate. While it is true that troponin I levels may continue to rise and peak within 12-24 hours after the onset of myocardial injury, an elevated troponin I level at any point is still a significant indicator of myocardial damage. It's essential to recognize elevated troponin I levels promptly to initiate appropriate interventions and monitor the client's cardiac status closely.

D. This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.

This statement is correct. An elevated troponin I level is a highly sensitive and specific marker of myocardial injury. It indicates damage to the heart muscle, which can occur due to conditions like unstable angina, heart attack (myocardial infarction), myocarditis, or other cardiac issues. Therefore, recognizing an elevated troponin I level in a client with unstable angina is crucial for proper management and further evaluation.

A. Sinus bradycardia B. Sinus arrhythmia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Normal sinus rhythm

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Sinus bradycardia: Sinus bradycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. In this case, the heart rate is 64 beats per minute, which falls within the normal range, not consistent with sinus bradycardia.

B. Sinus arrhythmia: Sinus arrhythmia typically presents as a variation in the R-R interval with respiration, often seen as an irregularity in the heart rate. The provided characteristics describe a regular rhythm, so sinus arrhythmia is not the correct interpretation.

C. Sinus tachycardia: Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a regular rhythm with a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. The heart rate in this case is 64 beats per minute, which is not indicative of sinus tachycardia.

D. Normal sinus rhythm: Normal sinus rhythm refers to a regular rhythm with a heart rate between 60 and 100 beats per minute, P waves preceding each QRS complex, a normal PR interval (0.12 to 0.20 seconds), and normal QRS complex duration (less than 0.12 seconds). The provided characteristics, including regular P waves, regular QRS complexes, a PR interval of 0.16 seconds, and a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, align with a normal sinus rhythm interpretation.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this client. The nurse should recognize what implication of this assessment finding?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and the QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which would be a correct interpretation based on these characteristics?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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