A nurse on the unit suspects that a colleague is extracting a small quantity of morphine from the syringe prior to administering it to the patient.
What should the nurse do in this situation?
Inform the charge nurse about her suspicion.
Report the incident to the hospital’s security department.
Request the assistive personnel (AP) to monitor the other nurse’s actions.
Confront the other nurse to discuss her suspicions.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
It is crucial for the nurse to prioritize patient safety and adhere to professional guidelines when encountering a potential diversion of controlled substances. Informing the charge nurse is the most appropriate initial action for several reasons:
Chain of Command: The charge nurse holds a supervisory position and is responsible for addressing issues within the unit, including concerns about medication diversion. Reporting suspicions to the charge nurse ensures adherence to the established chain of command and facilitates a prompt, organized response.
Confidentiality and Objectivity: The charge nurse is trained to handle sensitive situations discreetly and objectively. They can initiate a thorough investigation while maintaining confidentiality and protecting the rights of all involved parties.
Access to Resources: The charge nurse has access to resources and authority to take immediate action, such as securing medications, initiating patient assessments, and notifying appropriate personnel within the healthcare facility.
Collaboration and Support: The charge nurse can provide guidance and support to the reporting nurse, ensuring their concerns are addressed appropriately and that they feel safe in coming forward with their suspicions.
Rationale for other choices:
B. Reporting the incident directly to the hospital’s security department might be premature without first informing the charge nurse. The charge nurse can assess the situation, gather more information, and determine the most appropriate course of action, which may or may not involve security at this initial stage.
C. Requesting assistive personnel (AP) to monitor the other nurse’s actions is inappropriate. It places a burden on APs who are not trained or authorized to investigate such matters. It could also compromise the integrity of the investigation and potentially jeopardize patient safety.
D. Confronting the other nurse directly is not recommended. It could escalate the situation, create a hostile work environment, and potentially compromise the investigation. It is essential to follow established protocols and involve appropriate personnel to ensure a fair and thorough investigation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Patients have a legal right to access their medical records under the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Denying access is a violation of patient rights and could lead to legal consequences.
Undermines patient autonomy and trust. Patients have a right to know what information is in their medical records and to participate in their own healthcare decisions. Denying access can erode trust in the healthcare system.
Potential for errors and misunderstandings. If patients cannot review their records, they may not be able to identify errors or misunderstandings that could impact their care.
Choice B rationale:
Correct. This response upholds patient rights while ensuring that the request for access is documented and handled appropriately.
Protects patient privacy and confidentiality. The written request process helps to ensure that only the patient or their authorized representative has access to the records.
Provides a mechanism for tracking and auditing access requests. This can help to prevent unauthorized access and ensure compliance with HIPAA regulations.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. Patients have a right to access their records at any time, not just when they are being discharged.
Delays access to information. Patients may need to review their records to make informed decisions about their care, even if they are not being discharged.
Potential for records to be lost or misplaced. There is a risk that records could be lost or misplaced if they are not provided to the patient until discharge.
Choice D rationale:
Incorrect. Patients do not need to provide a reason for wanting to access their medical records.
Intrusive and unnecessary. Patients may feel uncomfortable or embarrassed about having to explain their reasons for wanting to access their records.
Potential for discrimination. Patients may be less likely to request access to their records if they feel that they will be judged or questioned about their reasons for doing so.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypovolemic shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluid volume, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This can be caused by severe bleeding, dehydration, burns, or other conditions that result in fluid loss. While anaphylaxis can involve some fluid shifts, it is not primarily characterized by a loss of blood or fluid volume.
Key features of hypovolemic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Prominent signs of dehydration: Dry skin and mucous membranes, decreased urine output, sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor.
Hemodynamic changes: Tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure, and cold extremities due to vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure.
Laboratory findings: Elevated hematocrit and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, indicating hemoconcentration and decreased kidney perfusion.
Choice B rationale:
Obstructive shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is an obstruction to blood flow, preventing adequate circulation to the body's tissues. This can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, or tension pneumothorax. Anaphylaxis does not involve a physical obstruction to blood flow.
Key features of obstructive shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of the underlying obstruction: Jugular venous distension (cardiac tamponade), muffled heart sounds (cardiac tamponade), or respiratory distress (pulmonary embolism or tension pneumothorax).
Distinctive hemodynamic changes: Equalization of diastolic pressures between the right and left ventricles (cardiac tamponade).
Specific imaging findings: Enlarged cardiac silhouette on chest X-ray (pericardial effusion), filling defects in the pulmonary arteries on CT angiography (pulmonary embolism), or hyperexpanded lung fields with a deviated trachea on chest X-ray (tension pneumothorax).
Choice C rationale:
Cardiogenic shock is a type of shock that occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can be caused by conditions such as heart attack, heart failure, or cardiomyopathy. Anaphylaxis does not primarily involve a failure of the heart's pumping function.
Key features of cardiogenic shock that distinguish it from anaphylactic shock include:
Evidence of heart failure: Pulmonary edema, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop).
Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes: ST-segment elevation or depression, Q waves, or other signs of myocardial ischemia or infarction.
Elevated cardiac enzymes: Troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) levels, indicating heart muscle damage.
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