A nurse receives a report from the laboratory on a client who was admitted for fever. The laboratory technician states that the client has “a shift to the left” on the white blood cell count. What action by the nurse is most important?

Notify the primary health care provider and request antibiotics.

Inform the client that this signifies inflammation.

Document findings and continue monitoring.

Place the client in protective isolation.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rationale for Choice A:
A shift to the left in the white blood cell (WBC) count indicates an increased presence of immature neutrophils, known as bands. This is a hallmark sign of infection, as the body is rapidly producing and releasing these cells to fight off invading pathogens.
Prompt notification of the primary health care provider is crucial to initiate timely antibiotic therapy, if indicated. Early intervention with appropriate antibiotics can effectively combat the infection, prevent its progression, and potentially avert serious complications.
Delaying antibiotic treatment can allow the infection to worsen, potentially leading to sepsis, septic shock, or other life- threatening conditions.
Rationale for Choice B:
While informing the client about the significance of a shift to the left is important for education and understanding, it does not address the immediate need for medical intervention.
The priority action is to involve the primary health care provider for prompt assessment and potential initiation of antibiotic therapy.
Rationale for Choice C:
Documenting findings and continuing to monitor the client's condition is essential for ongoing assessment and evaluation, but it does not constitute a proactive intervention to address the underlying infection.
Documentation alone does not initiate treatment, and monitoring without intervention risks allowing the infection to progress.
Rationale for Choice D:
Protective isolation is not routinely indicated for clients with a shift to the left in their WBC count unless there is a specific concern for transmission of a highly contagious infection.
The decision to implement protective isolation measures would be based on the client's overall clinical presentation and potential infectious risks, as determined by the primary health care provider.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Tolerance to the opiate medication is developing. This is the most likely explanation for why the client's pain is no longer being controlled by the same dose of medication. Tolerance is a physiological adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to a decrease in their effectiveness over time. This means that the client's body is becoming less responsive to the medication, and a higher dose is needed to achieve the same level of pain relief.
Choice B rationale:
There is likely a history of addiction. While it is possible that the client has a history of addiction, this is not the most likely explanation for why the medication is no longer controlling the pain. Addiction is a complex condition that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite negative consequences. It is not simply a matter of tolerance developing.
Choice C rationale:
The client is opiate naive. This means that the client has not previously been exposed to opioids. While opiate-naive clients may be more sensitive to the effects of opioids, they are also more likely to experience side effects, such as nausea and vomiting. The fact that the client has been receiving the same dose of medication for 2 days without experiencing side effects suggests that they are not opiate naive.
Choice D rationale:
Physical dependence. Physical dependence is a state of adaptation that occurs with repeated exposure to opioids, leading to withdrawal symptoms if the medication is abruptly stopped. However, physical dependence does not necessarily mean that the medication is no longer effective in controlling pain.

A. Document the episode B. Encourage the client to eat dry toast C. Allow the client to rest D. Auscultate lung sounds

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale for Choice A:
Documentation is essential for communication and continuity of care, but it is not the most immediate priority in this situation.
The nurse should document the episode of vomiting, including the time, amount, and characteristics of the vomitus, as well as any associated symptoms or interventions.
However, auscultating lung sounds should be done first to assess for potential aspiration, which is a more urgent concern.
Rationale for Choice B:
Offering dry toast may be appropriate after the nurse has assessed for aspiration and determined that it is safe for the client to resume oral intake.
However, it is not the most important action at this time.
The nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status and address any potential complications.
Rationale for Choice C:
Rest is important for healing and recovery, but it is not the most immediate priority in this situation. The nurse should first assess the client's respiratory status and address any potential complications. Once the client is stable, the nurse can then encourage rest.
Rationale for Choice D:
Auscultating lung sounds is the most important action for the nurse to take after a client vomits.
This is because aspiration of vomitus is a serious complication that can lead to pneumonia, respiratory distress, and even death.
By auscultating lung sounds, the nurse can assess for signs of aspiration, such as crackles, wheezing, or diminished breath sounds.
If aspiration is suspected, the nurse can initiate appropriate interventions, such as suctioning, oxygen therapy, and positioning the client to facilitate drainage of secretions.

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A nurse receives a report from the laboratory on a client who was admitted for fever. The laboratory technician states that the client has “a shift to the left” on the white blood cell count. What action by the nurse is most important?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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