A nurse receives a report on a client who has been diagnosed with an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Given her knowledge of the condition, the nurse would expect the client to have which underlying disease?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Atherosclerosis
Renal failure
Diabetes
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease affects lungs, not arteries, and is not a primary cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm, which results from arterial wall weakening due to atherosclerosis. This is incorrect, as it does not contribute to the vascular pathology underlying aneurysm formation.
Choice B reason: Atherosclerosis is the primary underlying disease for abdominal aortic aneurysm, causing arterial wall weakening through plaque buildup, leading to dilation and risk of rupture. This matches the pathophysiology, making it the correct condition the nurse should expect in a client with this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Renal failure is not a direct cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm, which is driven by atherosclerosis. While renal issues may coexist, they do not weaken arterial walls, making this incorrect, as atherosclerosis is the primary contributor to aneurysm development in the aorta.
Choice D reason: Diabetes contributes to atherosclerosis but is not the direct underlying cause of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Atherosclerosis itself, driven by plaque buildup, is the primary pathology, making diabetes a secondary risk factor and an incorrect choice compared to atherosclerosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg is normal (systolic <120 and diastolic <80), not stage 1 hypertension (systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89). This is incorrect, as it does not meet the criteria for hypertension, requiring clarification for the nurses’ understanding.
Choice B reason: A blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg is elevated (systolic 120–129 and diastolic <80), not stage 1 hypertension, which requires systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89. This is incorrect, as it falls below the threshold for stage 1 classification in hypertension guidelines.
Choice C reason: A blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg falls within stage 1 hypertension (systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89), requiring lifestyle changes and possible medication. This is the correct example, as it accurately represents the classification for stage 1 hypertension in clinical practice.
Choice D reason: A blood pressure of 162/98 mmHg indicates stage 2 hypertension (systolic ≥140 or diastolic ≥90), not stage 1. This is incorrect, as it exceeds the stage 1 range, requiring the nurse to distinguish it from the milder stage 1 classification.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A healed, painful area on the spine is unrelated to peripheral artery disease, which affects limb circulation. It may indicate a separate issue but is not a priority safety concern for this condition, making it less urgent to report compared to balance issues.
Choice B reason: Needing to walk slowly due to frequent loss of balance is a safety concern in peripheral artery disease, as it suggests neuropathy or severe ischemia, increasing fall risk. This requires immediate provider attention to prevent injury, making it the correct statement to report.
Choice C reason: Feeling sad about not keeping up with grandchildren reflects emotional impact but not an immediate safety concern in peripheral artery disease. Balance issues pose a greater risk, making this less urgent to report, as it does not indicate physical harm.
Choice D reason: Avoiding going out due to leg pain is expected in peripheral artery disease (claudication) but is not an immediate safety concern like balance loss. It requires management but not urgent reporting, making this incorrect compared to the fall risk indicated by balance issues.
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