A nurse working for a home health agency is teaching a client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus about disease management. Which of the following glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) values should the nurse include in the teaching as an indicator that the client is appropriately controlling their glucose levels?
7.8%
8.5%
10%
6.3%
The Correct Answer is D
A. 7.8%
An HbA1c value of 7.8% indicates an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months that is higher than the optimal range. This suggests that the client may not be achieving optimal glucose control.
B. 8.5%
An HbA1c value of 8.5% also indicates elevated average blood sugar levels over the past few months. This value suggests poorer control of diabetes, and adjustments to the management plan may be needed.
C. 10%
An HbA1c value of 10% indicates higher average blood sugar levels, signifying inadequate control of diabetes. This value suggests a need for intervention and modification of the treatment plan to achieve better glucose management.
D. 6.3%
An HbA1c value of 6.3% is considered a relatively good indicator of glucose control. This value suggests that the client has been successful in maintaining lower average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, reflecting effective diabetes management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Warfarin:
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. While it is used to prevent thromboembolic events, in a client with cirrhosis and an elevated PT, the priority is addressing the coagulation factor deficiency rather than adding an anticoagulant.
B. Vitamin K:
Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, and it helps in the synthesis of clotting factors. In cirrhosis, there can be impaired synthesis of clotting factors due to liver dysfunction. Administering vitamin K can aid in correcting coagulation abnormalities.
C. Heparin:
Heparin is another anticoagulant, but it does not reverse the effects of warfarin. It works by a different mechanism and is typically used in acute settings, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. It is not the primary intervention for an elevated PT in cirrhosis.
D. Ferrous sulfate:
Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not indicated for the correction of an elevated PT. Iron supplements are typically used to address iron deficiency anemia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Lactulose is not used to decrease potassium levels. It is a laxative that works by drawing water into the colon, softening stools and promoting bowel movements.
B. Lactulose is used to decrease ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. Ammonia is a byproduct of protein metabolism, and when the liver is compromised, it may not effectively convert ammonia into urea, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Lactulose helps reduce ammonia absorption in the colon.
C. Lactulose does not decrease glucose levels significantly. It is not primarily used as an antidiabetic medication.
D. Lactulose does not affect bicarbonate levels significantly. It primarily targets ammonia reduction in clients with cirrhosis.
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