A nursing student reports experiencing test-taking anxiety, including physical symptoms like a racing heart and trembling hands before exams. Which medication would the healthcare provider likely prescribe for episodic and acute symptom relief?
Propranolol
Lorazepam
Sertraline
Buspirone
The Correct Answer is B
A. Propranolol: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can be used to treat physical symptoms of anxiety, such as a racing heart. While it may help reduce physiological symptoms, it does not address the psychological components of anxiety and is not commonly prescribed for acute anxiety episodes like test-taking anxiety. Propranolol is more effective for individuals with performance anxiety (e.g., public speaking).
B. Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that works by depressing the central nervous system, providing rapid relief of acute anxiety symptoms. It is often used for short-term management of anxiety and can effectively reduce symptoms such as racing heart and trembling hands, making it appropriate for episodic anxiety like test-taking anxiety. However, it is typically prescribed for short-term use due to its potential for dependence.
C. Sertraline: Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for chronic anxiety and depression, but it is not effective for acute episodic anxiety. SSRIs are typically prescribed for long-term management of anxiety disorders, rather than immediate symptom relief.
D. Buspirone: Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication used for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) but has a delayed onset of action and is not effective for acute, episodic anxiety relief. It is more suitable for long-term management rather than immediate symptom control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A structured schedule may help with overall daily functioning, but it does not specifically address the compulsive behavior.
B. Educating the client about the irrationality of the behavior is unlikely to reduce the compulsions, as this is a hallmark of OCD, where the individual is often unable to control the urges despite understanding their irrationality.
C. Collaborating with the client to set realistic, gradual goals for changing the compulsive behavior is key in treating OCD. This approach allows the client to have input into their treatment plan and promotes realistic, achievable progress.
D. Encouraging the client to resist the urge to rearrange items without providing a structured approach may lead to increased anxiety and frustration. Gradual exposure and behavior modification are more effective.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania is not typical of bipolar II disorder, as hypomanic episodes are a key feature of the disorder.
B. Psychosis is more common during full manic episodes, typically seen in bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II.
C. Bipolar II disorder is characterized by hypomanic episodes that alternate with major depressive episodes. Hypomania is a less severe form of mania, and individuals with bipolar II do not experience full manic episodes as in bipolar I.
D. Severe manic episodes are characteristic of bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II, which involves hypomanic episodes instead.
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