A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because:

a daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.

she will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.

the fetus is at risk for multiple organ anomalies.

the fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: A daily consumption of alcohol does not necessarily indicate a risk for alcoholism, although it is not recommended for pregnant women. Alcoholism is a chronic disease that involves physical and psychological dependence on alcohol, and it requires more than one criterion to be diagnosed.

Choice B reason: She will not be at risk for abusing other substances as well, unless she has a history or predisposition for substance abuse. Alcohol use during pregnancy does not cause other substance abuse problems, although it may co-occur with them.

Choice C reason: The fetus is not at risk for multiple organ anomalies, unless the mother consumes large amounts of alcohol during the first trimester of pregnancy. This can cause fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), which is characterized by facial dysmorphia, growth retardation, and intellectual disability. However, FAS is rare and not related to moderate alcohol intake during the second trimester.

Choice D reason: The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth, as alcohol can cross the placenta and affect the developing nervous system of the fetus. Alcohol exposure during the second trimester can impair the formation and migration of neurons, leading to reduced brain size and function. This can result in learning difficulties, behavioral problems, and cognitive impairments in the child.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.

Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².

Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.

Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.

A. Braxton Hicks contractions. B. fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. C. a positive pregnancy test. D. quickening.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

Choice B reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It can be detected as early as 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.

Choice C reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not a definitive sign, as other conditions can cause elevated hCG levels.

Choice D reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, which usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

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A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the CDC recommended medication for the treatment of chlamydia?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvic pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last 5 years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to:

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