A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is:

Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score.

The test results are within normal limits.

An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery.

Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Further testing will not be performed to determine the meaning of this score, as the biophysical profile score is a reliable indicator of fetal well-being. It is a combination of five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate. Each parameter is scored as 0 (abnormal) or 2 (normal), and the total score ranges from 0 to 10.

Choice B reason: The test results are within normal limits, as a biophysical profile score of 8 or higher indicates a healthy fetus with a low risk of hypoxia or acidosis. It also suggests that the placenta is functioning adequately and the pregnancy can continue safely.

Choice C reason: An obstetric specialist will not evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery, as the biophysical profile score is interpreted by the nurse or the health care provider who performed the test. It is not a diagnostic test that requires a consultation with a specialist.

Choice D reason: Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is not being considered, as the biophysical profile score of 8 does not indicate any fetal distress or complication that would warrant an urgent intervention. Cesarean birth may be indicated for other reasons, such as malpresentation, placenta previa, or failure to progress in labor.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: The NST has no known contraindications, as it is a non-invasive and safe test that does not stimulate uterine contractions or cause fetal distress. It is the most widely used method of antepartum fetal surveillance.

Choice B reason: The NST is not slightly more expensive than the CST, as it requires less time and equipment. The NST usually takes 20 to 40 minutes, while the CST may take up to 2 hours. The NST only needs a fetal monitor, while the CST also needs an intravenous line and oxytocin infusion.

Choice C reason: The NST does not have fewer false-positive results than the CST, as it has a higher rate of nonreactive results that may indicate fetal compromise when there is none. A nonreactive NST is one that does not show at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period.

Choice D reason: The NST is not more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise than the CST, as it has a lower predictive value for fetal well-being. A reactive NST is one that shows at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate of 15 beats per minute or more lasting 15 seconds or more in a 20-minute period. However, a reactive NST does not rule out the possibility of fetal hypoxia or acidosis.

A. Penicillin B. Acyclovir C. Doxycycline D. Podofilox

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.

Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².

Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.

Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.

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A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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