A patient has been taking oral contraceptives for a few years as their method of birth control and calls the clinic to get a refill. The patient's last office visit was 3 months ago. What is the best nursing response?

Verify that the patient is taking the medication as ordered.

Schedule an appointment with the health-care provider.

Ask the patient if this birth control method is effective.

Document the message and ask the health-care provider for a refill and ensure patient schedules a follow up appointment.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Verify that the patient is taking the medication as ordered: While it's important to verify medication adherence, this option doesn't fully address the need to ensure continued patient safety and care.

B. Schedule an appointment with the health-care provider: While follow-up appointments are important, this alone does not address the immediate need for a medication refill.

C. Ask the patient if this birth control method is effective: This question could be part of the conversation but is not the best response for addressing the refill request.

D. Document the message and ask the health-care provider for a refill and ensure patient schedules a follow-up appointment: This is the correct answer. It ensures that the patient receives the necessary medication without interruption and continues to receive appropriate follow-up care.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Barium sulfate is used as a contrast agent in radiographic diagnostic testing, particularly for imaging the gastrointestinal tract.

B. Penicillin (PCN) is an antibiotic used to treat infections, not for diagnostic purposes.

C. Estrogen is a hormone used in hormone replacement therapy and other treatments, not for diagnostic testing.

D. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for diagnostic testing.

A. Ritalin B. cocaine C. ketamine D. methaqualone E. hydrocodone

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A. Ritalin (methylphenidate) is a Schedule II drug, indicating it has a high potential for abuse and dependence, despite its accepted medical use for treating ADHD.

B. Cocaine is classified as a Schedule II drug because it has a high potential for abuse but also has accepted medical uses, such as in certain surgical procedures as a local anesthetic.

C. Ketamine is classified as a Schedule III drug. It has a lower potential for abuse compared to Schedule II substances but is still controlled.

D. Methaqualone is a Schedule I drug, indicating it has no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.

E. Hydrocodone, particularly in combination with other substances, is classified as a Schedule II drug due to its high potential for abuse and dependence.

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A patient has been taking oral contraceptives for a few years as their method of birth control and calls the clinic to get a refill. The patient's last office visit was 3 months ago. What is the best nursing response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is scheduled for diagnostic testing. Which medication should the nurse anticipate that the health-care provider would order?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which of the following are considered Schedule II drugs by the DEA? select all that apply

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

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.Antagonist medications typically are considered?

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