A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor (statins). Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?

You should maintain a healthy lifestyle and avoid high-fat foods.

Muscle pain is not concerning with statin use.

Statins reduce the risk of coronary events in people with diabetes and slightly elevated LDL levels.

Statin use can cause GI side effects.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:
Maintaining a healthy lifestyle and avoiding high-fat foods is appropriate advice. Statins are more effective when combined with a healthy diet and lifestyle. This helps in managing cholesterol levels and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events.

Choice B reason:
The statement that muscle pain is not concerning with statin use is inappropriate. Muscle pain can be a significant side effect of statins, known as myopathy, and in rare cases, it can lead to a more severe condition called rhabdomyolysis. Patients experiencing muscle pain should report it to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management.

Choice C reason:
Statins do reduce the risk of coronary events in people with diabetes and slightly elevated LDL levels. This is well-documented and an appropriate part of patient education, as statins are beneficial in preventing cardiovascular events in at-risk populations.

Choice D reason:
Statin use can cause gastrointestinal (GI) side effects, including nausea, constipation, and diarrhea. This information should be part of patient education so that patients are aware of potential side effects and can manage them appropriately.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Vitamin K (phytonadione) is the antidote for warfarin overdose. It works by promoting the synthesis of clotting factors that are inhibited by warfarin, thereby reversing the anticoagulant effects. In cases of excessive warfarin intake, administering vitamin K helps restore normal clotting function.

Choice B reason:
Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose, not warfarin. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin, but it has no effect on warfarin-induced anticoagulation. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this situation.

Choice C reason:
A PTT lab test measures the effectiveness of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is primarily used to monitor heparin therapy. It is not relevant for managing warfarin overdose, as warfarin affects the extrinsic pathway, which is measured by the PT/INR test.

Choice D reason:
While an INR lab test is essential for monitoring the therapeutic levels of warfarin, the immediate need in this situation is to reverse the effects of the overdose. Administering vitamin K is the necessary intervention to counteract the excessive anticoagulation caused by warfarin.

A. Left ventricular failure. B. Cirrhosis of the liver. C. Thrombosis in the spleen. D. Renal stenosis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B reason: Cirrhosis of the liver is the most likely cause of portal hypertension. Cirrhosis leads to scarring and fibrosis of the liver tissue, which obstructs blood flow through the liver and increases pressure in the portal vein, resulting in portal hypertension.
Choice A reason: Left ventricular failure is not a common cause of portal hypertension. It primarily affects the heart and can lead to pulmonary congestion and systemic edema, but not portal hypertension.
Choice C reason: Thrombosis in the spleen can contribute to portal hypertension, but it is not the most common cause. Cirrhosis of the liver is a more prevalent and significant cause of this condition.
Choice D reason: Renal stenosis affects the blood vessels supplying the kidneys and is not related to portal hypertension. It can lead to hypertension, but not specifically portal hypertension.

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A patient has begun taking an HMG-COA reductase inhibitor (statins). Which statement about this class of drugs made by the nurse during patient education would be inappropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

What is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy (from chronic liver disease)?

Which condition(s) would cause the nurse to hold a PRN order for magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)?

Anurse is discussing intravenous Amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

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Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions for 20 minutes before irreversible cell injury occurs:

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Sucralfate reduces acid production in the stomach. A nursing student is caring for a patient who is taking sucralfate (Carafate) to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A 65-year-old woman with no history of pulmonary or cardiovascular issues presents to the emergency department with nausea, fatigue, and fullness and pain of the abdomen. The nurse knows the assessment tests that will be ordered first will include: