A patient has just arrived on the unit after a thyroidectomy. Which action would the nurse take first?
Check the blood pressure and pulse.
Observe the dressing for bleeding.
Support the patient's head with pillows.
Assess the patient's respiratory effort.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Checking the blood pressure and pulse is important as part of the routine monitoring of vital signs to assess the patient's hemodynamic status. However, it is not the first action to take following a thyroidectomy. Ensuring that the patient's airway is clear and that there is no respiratory distress is paramount, as any compromise in the airway can lead to life-threatening situations. Blood pressure and pulse can be checked after confirming the patient is breathing properly.
Choice B reason: Observing the dressing for bleeding is also important because post-operative bleeding can be a serious concern. However, this action should follow the assessment of the patient's airway. If the patient is experiencing respiratory distress, addressing the airway takes precedence. Once it is confirmed that the airway is clear, then the nurse can check for bleeding and ensure the dressing is intact.
Choice C reason: Supporting the patient's head with pillows is beneficial for comfort and proper positioning, especially to avoid strain on the surgical site. However, positioning should not be the first priority. Ensuring that the patient's airway is clear and that there is no respiratory compromise is the most urgent concern. Proper positioning can be done after confirming that the patient is breathing adequately.
Choice D reason: Assessing the patient's respiratory effort is the first and most critical action. Following a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of respiratory complications due to potential swelling, bleeding, or damage to the trachea and surrounding structures. Immediate assessment of respiratory effort ensures that the airway is patent and the patient is not in respiratory distress. This step is crucial to prevent hypoxia and other serious complications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox) would not be the most appropriate action for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Enoxaparin, like heparin, is a low molecular weight heparin and can still cause HIT. Therefore, this action does not address the immediate need to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further reduction in platelet levels and manage the HIT effectively.
Choice B reason: Discontinuing the heparin infusion is the correct action for a nurse to take first when a patient is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The primary step in managing HIT is to stop all forms of heparin to prevent further platelet activation and decrease in platelet count. Discontinuing heparin helps to prevent thromboembolic complications associated with HIT. Once heparin is discontinued, the healthcare provider can evaluate alternative anticoagulation therapies that do not cross-react with heparin, such as direct thrombin inhibitors.
Choice C reason: Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) is not appropriate at this stage for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Warfarin can initially lead to a hypercoagulable state, which increases the risk of thrombosis in patients with HIT. The immediate priority is to discontinue heparin, and warfarin should only be considered once platelet counts have recovered and the acute HIT has been managed.
Choice D reason: Preparing for platelet transfusion is not the first action to take for managing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Platelet transfusions are generally avoided in HIT as they can potentially worsen the thrombotic risk. The primary action should be to discontinue heparin and consider alternative anticoagulation therapies. Platelet transfusions may be reserved for cases where there is significant bleeding or invasive procedures are planned.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering furosemide in this scenario would further lower the serum potassium level, as furosemide is a loop diuretic known for causing potassium loss through urine. This action could worsen the patient’s hypokalemia, leading to severe complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, administering furosemide in the presence of hypokalemia is inappropriate and could put the patient at significant risk.
Choice B reason:
Administering both spironolactone and furosemide together without addressing the hypokalemia would not be safe. While spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, combining it with furosemide could negate its potassium-sparing effects. Furthermore, administering furosemide when hypokalemia is present could cause further electrolyte imbalance. Proper evaluation of the patient's condition and selective administration of the medications are crucial in this case.
Choice C reason:
Withholding both medications and attributing the decision to contraindications with hyperkalemia is incorrect because the reported potassium level (3.2 mEq/L) reflects hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. Misinterpreting the lab result could delay appropriate treatment, such as correcting the potassium level or safely administering a medication that would not exacerbate the hypokalemia. Proper communication with the healthcare provider is necessary for effective patient care.
Choice D reason:
Administering spironolactone is the best action in this scenario because it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. By administering spironolactone, the risk of worsening hypokalemia is minimized. Notifying the healthcare provider about the low potassium level ensures appropriate monitoring and any necessary interventions, such as potassium supplementation. This approach is both safe and effective in managing the patient’s current condition while adhering to standard nursing practices.
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