A patient is admitted to labor and delivery for management of severe preeclampsia. An IV infusion of magnesium sulfate is ordered. What is the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy?
Decrease proteinuria.
Prevent maternal seizures.
Reduce deep tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Decrease proteinuria is not the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy. It's an indicator of kidney function and hypertension severity. Therapy focuses on neuroprotection and seizure prevention. Proteinuria reflects preeclampsia's renal impact, not neuroprotection.
Choice B rationale
Prevent maternal seizures is magnesium sulfate's primary goal. It stabilizes neuronal membranes, reducing seizure risk in severe preeclampsia. By inhibiting NMDA receptors and calcium channels, it prevents seizures, critical for maternal-fetal safety.
Choice C rationale
Reduce deep tendon reflexes is not magnesium sulfate's primary goal, but a side effect. It signifies therapeutic levels, indicating potential toxicity. Reflex reduction helps assess magnesium toxicity risk, ensuring safe neuroprotective dosing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Chronic hypertension significantly increases the risk of complications such as preeclampsia, intrauterine growth restriction, and placental abruption. Normal blood pressure is <120/80 mmHg. Elevated blood pressure can damage blood vessels and organs, affecting placental function.
Choice B rationale:
A sedentary lifestyle can lead to excessive weight gain, gestational diabetes, and venous thromboembolism. Lack of physical activity is linked to poor cardiovascular health and increased risk of preeclampsia. Regular exercise is recommended to mitigate these risks.
Choice C rationale:
Occasional dizziness is common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes, increased blood volume, or postural hypotension. It is not a major risk factor for pregnancy complications unless associated with other symptoms like severe headache or visual disturbances.
Choice D rationale:
Consuming 1 cup of coffee daily (approximately 95 mg of caffeine) is generally considered safe during pregnancy. The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists states that moderate caffeine intake (<200 mg/day) does not significantly increase the risk of pregnancy complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine atony refers to a lack of muscle tone in the uterus, leading to postpartum hemorrhage, not subinvolution.
Choice B rationale
Prolonged lochia discharge indicates incomplete uterine involution, as the uterus has not returned to its pre-pregnancy size.
Choice C rationale
Severe cramping may be related to other postpartum complications and is not specific to subinvolution.
Choice D rationale
High fever is more indicative of an infection rather than subinvolution of the uterus.
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