A patient is admitted to labor and delivery for management of severe preeclampsia. An IV infusion of magnesium sulfate is ordered. What is the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy?
Decrease proteinuria.
Prevent maternal seizures.
Reduce deep tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Decrease proteinuria is not the primary goal for magnesium sulfate therapy. It's an indicator of kidney function and hypertension severity. Therapy focuses on neuroprotection and seizure prevention. Proteinuria reflects preeclampsia's renal impact, not neuroprotection.
Choice B rationale
Prevent maternal seizures is magnesium sulfate's primary goal. It stabilizes neuronal membranes, reducing seizure risk in severe preeclampsia. By inhibiting NMDA receptors and calcium channels, it prevents seizures, critical for maternal-fetal safety.
Choice C rationale
Reduce deep tendon reflexes is not magnesium sulfate's primary goal, but a side effect. It signifies therapeutic levels, indicating potential toxicity. Reflex reduction helps assess magnesium toxicity risk, ensuring safe neuroprotective dosing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Waiting for the next contraction is inappropriate in shoulder dystocia, where immediate action is required to prevent fetal hypoxia. Delaying intervention can lead to serious complications for the newborn.
Choice B rationale
The McRoberts maneuver, involving hyperflexion of the mother's legs, widens the pelvis, facilitating shoulder delivery in cases of shoulder dystocia. This technique reduces shoulder impaction effectively.
Choice C rationale
Applying fundal pressure is contraindicated in shoulder dystocia as it may worsen the impaction by compressing the fetal shoulders against the maternal pelvis, increasing the risk of injury.
Choice D rationale
Vacuum extraction is not recommended for shoulder dystocia management. This obstetric emergency requires specific maneuvers, like the McRoberts maneuver, to relieve the impacted shoulder.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of uterine rupture poses a significant risk for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) due to the potential recurrence of uterine rupture, which can be life-threatening for both mother and fetus.
Choice B rationale
Previous cesarean section for breech presentation is not a contraindication for TOLAC. Patients with prior cesarean deliveries can consider TOLAC if there are no additional risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Previous low transverse cesarean section birth is often considered suitable for TOLAC, as the lower segment incision has a lower risk of rupture compared to vertical or classical incisions.
Choice D rationale
Low-risk pregnancy alone is not a contraindication for TOLAC. It is essential to assess other factors such as uterine scarring, maternal health, and fetal status when considering TOLAC eligibility.
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