A patient is especially worried about an area of skin on her feet that has turned white.
The health care provider has told her that her condition is vitiligo.
The nurse explains to her that vitiligo is:
Caused by the complete absence of melanin pigment.
Caused by an excess of apocrine glands in her feet.
Related to impetigo and can be treated with an ointment.
Caused by an excess of melanin pigment.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Vitiligo is a condition caused by the destruction or malfunction of melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing melanin pigment. This leads to the development of white patches on the skin, as melanin is absent in these areas. Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition and can affect any part of the body, including the skin, hair, and mucous membranes.
Choice B rationale
Excess apocrine glands in the feet are not related to vitiligo. Apocrine glands are sweat glands found primarily in the underarm and genital areas and are responsible for the secretion of a thick, odorless fluid. Their overactivity does not result in the white patches seen in vitiligo.
Choice C rationale
Impetigo is a bacterial skin infection characterized by red sores, blisters, and crusting. It is not related to vitiligo and does not cause depigmentation. Impetigo is treated with antibiotics, whereas vitiligo requires different management strategies to address the loss of pigment.
Choice D rationale
Vitiligo is not caused by an excess of melanin pigment. Rather, it is the result of melanin loss or the absence of melanocytes in certain areas of the skin, leading to the characteristic white patches.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The Romberg test evaluates equilibrium by having the client stand with feet together and eyes closed, observing for swaying or imbalance. It assesses the function of the vestibular system, proprioception, and cerebellar function, making it the most appropriate test for assessing dizziness and equilibrium.
Choice B rationale
The Weber test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead to evaluate sound lateralization. It assesses hearing loss but not equilibrium, making it less suitable for dizziness assessment.
Choice C rationale
The Rinne test compares air and bone conduction of sound using a tuning fork. While useful for diagnosing conductive hearing loss, it does not assess equilibrium, making it inappropriate for evaluating dizziness.
Choice D rationale
The cover test evaluates eye alignment and muscle function by having the client cover one eye and observe the uncovered eye for movement. It assesses ocular motility but not equilibrium, making it unsuitable for dizziness assessment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The abducens cranial nerve (CN VI) controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eye, which is responsible for outward movement. It is not assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart. The function of this nerve is tested through the evaluation of lateral eye movements.
Choice B rationale
The optic cranial nerve (CN II) is responsible for vision, including visual acuity and visual fields. It is assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart to determine how well a person can see at various distances. This test evaluates the clarity and sharpness of vision, making CN II the correct answer.
Choice C rationale
The trochlear cranial nerve (CN IV) controls the superior oblique muscle, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. It is not assessed using the Snellen visual acuity chart but rather through the evaluation of eye movements and alignment.
Choice D rationale
The oculomotor cranial nerve (CN III) controls most of the eye's movements, including those of the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, as well as the inferior oblique muscle. It is also responsible for controlling the pupil's response to light. The Snellen visual acuity chart does not assess the function of CN III, as it focuses on visual clarity and acuity.
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