A patient is newly diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which S&S (sign and symptom) is the patient likely to exhibit?

Several episodes of black and tarry stocks.

Several episodes of hematochezia per day

Post-alcohol ingestion epigastric pain.

An oral temperature of 102

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Several episodes of black and tarry stools: This indicates melena, which is typically associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, not specifically Crohn's disease.

B. Several episodes of hematochezia per day: Hematochezia (fresh blood in stools) can occur in Crohn's disease due to inflammation and ulceration in the intestines.

C. Post-alcohol ingestion epigastric pain: This is more commonly associated with gastritis or peptic ulcer disease, not Crohn's disease.

D. An oral temperature of 102°F: While fever can occur in Crohn's disease during acute flare-ups, it is not a specific or definitive symptom of the condition. The primary symptoms are gastrointestinal in nature, such as abdominal pain and altered bowel habits.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "You have irreparably damaged your liver, there is no available treatment at this time.": Hepatitis A is usually a self-limiting illness with full recovery, and the liver often heals completely.

B. "A vaccine could have prevented this illness but a full recovery typically occurs with HAV.”: Hepatitis A can be prevented by vaccination, and most people recover fully without lasting liver damage.

C. "You likely came in contact with HAV-infected blood to have contracted this disease.": Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route, not through blood contact.

D. "Expect to feel better in about a month but expect to have the symptoms for life.": While symptoms can last for several weeks to months, they do not persist for life in hepatitis A infections.

A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections B. "The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections." C. "He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill D. "He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.

B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.

C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.

D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.

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A patient is newly diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which S&S (sign and symptom) is the patient likely to exhibit?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with malaise, nausea and "yellow eyes." A diagnosis of hepatitis A (HAV) is confirmed. Which statement, by the registered nurse (RN), indicates an understanding of this illness?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A young boy is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of new onset type I diabetes mellitus. As the registered nurse prepares to administer insulin, the child's mother asks why he can't just "take a pill. Which response, by the nurse, explains the rationale for an injection of insulin?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. High unconjugated, low direct: In liver disease, both conjugated (direct) and unconjugated bilirubin levels are typically elevated.

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