A patient weighing 132 lb is prescribed lorazepam 44 mcg/kg IV to be administered 20 minutes before a scheduled procedure.
The medication is available in a 2 mg/mL vial.
How many mL should the nurse administer? Round off to 2 d.p.
(This is a medical math nd does not require options.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.32"]
Step 1 is to convert the patient’s weight from pounds to kilograms. There are approximately 2.2046 pounds in 1 kilogram. So, the patient’s weight in kilograms is 132 lb ÷ 2.2046 = 59.87 kg.
Step 2 is to calculate the total dose of lorazepam the patient should receive. The prescribed dose is 44 mcg/kg. So, the total dose in micrograms is 44 mcg/kg × 59.87 kg = 2634.28 mcg.
Step 3 is to convert the total dose from micrograms to milligrams. There are 1000 micrograms in 1 milligram. So, the total dose in milligrams is 2634.28 mcg ÷ 1000 = 2.63428 mg.
Step 4 is to calculate the volume of lorazepam solution to administer. The concentration of the solution is 2 mg/mL. So, the volume in milliliters is 2.63428 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 1.31714 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer approximately 1.32 mL of the lorazepam solution, rounding to the nearest hundredth as required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol is known as the “good” cholesterol because it helps remove other forms of cholesterol from your bloodstream. Higher levels of HDL cholesterol are associated with a lower risk of heart disease. Therefore, an HDL level of 85 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L) is helpful in reducing cardiac risk.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging the client to reduce consumption of fatty foods is not necessary in this case as the client’s HDL level is already high, which is beneficial for heart health.
Choice C rationale
Asking the client about hereditary cardiac risk factors is not the most relevant action in this case. The client’s HDL level is already high, which is beneficial for heart health.
Choice D rationale
Explaining that the client may need medication therapy is not necessary in this case as the client’s HDL level is already high, which is beneficial for heart health.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While it’s important to assess all aspects of the patient’s condition, a warm left lower extremity does not necessarily indicate a right hip fracture. It could be related to other conditions, such as deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis.
Choice B rationale
The presence of strong bilateral pedal pulses is a positive sign and does not indicate a hip fracture. It suggests that the patient has good peripheral circulation.
Choice C rationale
The ability to wiggle the toes when the sole of the right foot is tickled does not necessarily indicate a hip fracture. This is a normal response and suggests that the patient has intact sensory and motor function in the foot.
Choice D rationale
A right leg that is externally rotated and shorter than the left is a classic sign of a hip fracture. This occurs because the fracture can cause the femoral head to tilt and rotate outward, making the leg appear shorter.
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