A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 80,000/uL. Which action will the nurse take first?
Ask the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox).
Discontinuing the heparin infusion
Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)
Preparing for platelet transfusion
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Asking the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox) would not be the most appropriate action for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Enoxaparin, like heparin, is a low molecular weight heparin and can still cause HIT. Therefore, this action does not address the immediate need to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further reduction in platelet levels and manage the HIT effectively.
Choice B reason: Discontinuing the heparin infusion is the correct action for a nurse to take first when a patient is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The primary step in managing HIT is to stop all forms of heparin to prevent further platelet activation and decrease in platelet count. Discontinuing heparin helps to prevent thromboembolic complications associated with HIT. Once heparin is discontinued, the healthcare provider can evaluate alternative anticoagulation therapies that do not cross-react with heparin, such as direct thrombin inhibitors.
Choice C reason: Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) is not appropriate at this stage for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Warfarin can initially lead to a hypercoagulable state, which increases the risk of thrombosis in patients with HIT. The immediate priority is to discontinue heparin, and warfarin should only be considered once platelet counts have recovered and the acute HIT has been managed.
Choice D reason: Preparing for platelet transfusion is not the first action to take for managing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Platelet transfusions are generally avoided in HIT as they can potentially worsen the thrombotic risk. The primary action should be to discontinue heparin and consider alternative anticoagulation therapies. Platelet transfusions may be reserved for cases where there is significant bleeding or invasive procedures are planned.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Increasing serum potassium levels would not indicate effective therapy for a patient with Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough aldosterone, which is responsible for regulating sodium and potassium balance. As a result, patients with Addison’s disease often experience hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Effective therapy typically aims to normalize potassium levels, so an increase would suggest inadequate treatment or worsening of the condition.
Choice B reason:
Decreasing blood glucose levels would not typically be seen as a positive indicator in a patient with Addison's disease. The body’s ability to maintain normal blood glucose levels is compromised in Addison’s disease due to a deficiency in cortisol. Cortisol plays a key role in regulating glucose metabolism, and its deficiency can lead to hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels). If blood glucose levels are decreasing, it may indicate inadequate glucocorticoid replacement therapy, suggesting the therapy is not fully effective.
Choice C reason:
Decreasing serum chloride levels would not be expected in a patient with Addison’s disease who is receiving proper treatment. Chloride is regulated alongside sodium and is influenced by aldosterone. In Addison's disease, aldosterone deficiency leads to a decreased ability to retain sodium, which in turn can affect chloride levels. However, a decrease in chloride levels alone is not a clear sign of effective therapy. Normalization of serum sodium levels is a better indicator of treatment success.
Choice D reason:
Increasing serum sodium levels is the correct finding that indicates effective therapy in a patient with Addison’s disease. In this condition, aldosterone deficiency results in sodium loss through the kidneys, leading to hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Effective therapy, which typically involves the administration of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids (such as fludrocortisone), helps to correct this imbalance by increasing sodium retention and normalizing serum sodium levels. This would demonstrate that the current therapies are working to restore the electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer is ["D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tongue blade is not typically necessary for a patient with status epilepticus. It is more commonly used for oral care or to check the throat, but it is not essential in this context.
Choice B reason: A urinary catheter is not necessary unless the patient has specific urinary retention issues or requires accurate measurement of urine output. It is not standard equipment for managing status epilepticus.
Choice C reason: A nasogastric tube is not typically required for status epilepticus unless there are specific gastrointestinal issues that need to be addressed. It is not standard equipment for managing status epilepticus.
Choice D reason: A suction set up is essential for a patient with status epilepticus to manage potential airway secretions and prevent aspiration. It ensures that the airway remains clear and reduces the risk of complications.
Choice E reason: An oxygen mask is crucial for a patient with status epilepticus to ensure adequate oxygenation. It helps maintain oxygen levels and supports respiratory function, especially if the patient experiences respiratory distress.
Choice F reason: Side-rail pads are important for patient safety, particularly for a patient with status epilepticus who may be at risk of falls or injury during seizures. They provide a protective barrier and help prevent accidental injury.
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