A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 80,000/uL. Which action will the nurse take first?

Ask the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox).

Discontinuing the heparin infusion

Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)

Preparing for platelet transfusion

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Asking the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox) would not be the most appropriate action for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Enoxaparin, like heparin, is a low molecular weight heparin and can still cause HIT. Therefore, this action does not address the immediate need to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further reduction in platelet levels and manage the HIT effectively.
Choice B reason: Discontinuing the heparin infusion is the correct action for a nurse to take first when a patient is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The primary step in managing HIT is to stop all forms of heparin to prevent further platelet activation and decrease in platelet count. Discontinuing heparin helps to prevent thromboembolic complications associated with HIT. Once heparin is discontinued, the healthcare provider can evaluate alternative anticoagulation therapies that do not cross-react with heparin, such as direct thrombin inhibitors.
Choice C reason: Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) is not appropriate at this stage for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Warfarin can initially lead to a hypercoagulable state, which increases the risk of thrombosis in patients with HIT. The immediate priority is to discontinue heparin, and warfarin should only be considered once platelet counts have recovered and the acute HIT has been managed.
Choice D reason: Preparing for platelet transfusion is not the first action to take for managing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Platelet transfusions are generally avoided in HIT as they can potentially worsen the thrombotic risk. The primary action should be to discontinue heparin and consider alternative anticoagulation therapies. Platelet transfusions may be reserved for cases where there is significant bleeding or invasive procedures are planned.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Suggesting the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only may help manage incontinence during the night, but it does not address the primary issue of urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder. Incontinence briefs are a passive approach and do not prevent urinary retention or the complications associated with it, such as urinary tract infections and kidney damage. Additionally, it does not empower the patient to actively manage their urinary retention.
Choice B reason: Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day can help to some extent in managing urinary retention. However, this approach requires constant assistance and is not practical for long-term management, especially when the patient is alone or in settings where frequent assistance is not available. This method also does not ensure complete bladder emptying, which is crucial for preventing urinary tract infections and other complications.
Choice C reason: Teaching the patient how to self-catheterize is the most appropriate and effective action for managing urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder. Self-catheterization allows the patient to empty the bladder regularly and completely, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections, bladder distention, and kidney damage. It also provides the patient with a sense of control and independence in managing their condition. Self-catheterization is a standard and recommended practice for individuals with neurogenic bladder dysfunction due to multiple sclerosis.
Choice D reason: Encouraging decreased evening intake of fluid can help reduce nighttime urination, but it does not address the issue of urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder. Decreasing fluid intake is not a comprehensive solution and does not prevent complications associated with incomplete bladder emptying. It is important to manage fluid intake appropriately, but this should be part of a broader strategy that includes effective bladder emptying techniques like self-catheterization.

A. "It must have been from sharing needles with my roommate." B. "It is likely transmitted through kissing or sexual activity." C. "I think I caught it because I have a family history of liver problems." D. "I probably got it from drinking contaminated water or eating food handled by someone who didn't wash their hands properly."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: "It must have been from sharing needles with my roommate." This statement is incorrect because hepatitis A is not typically transmitted through sharing needles. Hepatitis A is primarily spread through the fecal-oral route, which involves ingestion of contaminated food or water.
Choice B reason: "It is likely transmitted through kissing or sexual activity." This statement is also incorrect. Hepatitis A is not commonly spread through kissing or sexual activity. It is mainly transmitted through consuming contaminated food or water or close contact with an infected person.
Choice C reason: "I think I caught it because I have a family history of liver problems." This statement reflects a misunderstanding of how hepatitis A is transmitted. Hepatitis A is not linked to genetic predisposition or family history of liver problems. It is an infectious disease spread through the fecal-oral route.
Choice D reason: "I probably got it from drinking contaminated water or eating food handled by someone who didn't wash their hands properly." This statement is correct and indicates an accurate understanding of how hepatitis A is transmitted. The virus is often spread through consumption of contaminated food or water, particularly in areas with poor sanitation.

View Question and Answer

Test	Result	Normal Range
ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase)	1.200 U/L	7-56 U/L
AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase)	1.000 U/L	10-40 U/L
Total Bilirubin	5.5 mg/dL	0.1-1.2 mg/dL
Hepatitis A IgM	Positive	Negative

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A patient who has been receiving IV heparin infusion and oral warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when the platelet level drops to 80,000/uL. Which action will the nurse take first?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which action should the nurse plan to take for a patient with multiple sclerosis who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 23-year-old college student is diagnosed with hepatitis A after returning from an international trip. During health education, the nurse explains how hepatitis A is transmitted. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of how the virus is spread?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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