A patient who has been taking esomeprazole reports a new onset of muscle cramps. Which of the following might be the cause of this symptom?

A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.

B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.

C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.

D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.

A. Administer the insulin to the client is incorrect as the nurse should first verify the dosage for safety before administration.

B. Check the dosage with another nurse is correct because double-checking the insulin dosage with another licensed nurse is a critical safety step to prevent medication errors.

C. Check the client's blood sugar again is incorrect; while monitoring blood sugar is important, it is not the immediate next action after preparing the insulin.

D. Ensure a meal tray is available is incorrect; although the client should have a meal ready after insulin administration, the priority action before administering the medication is to confirm the dosage.