A client is receiving opioid therapy. The nurse should be alert to the possibility that which could occur if the client receives an opioid agonist-antagonist?

Increased risk for CNS depression

Respiratory depression

Opioid withdrawal symptoms

Hypotension

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.

B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.

C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.

D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Administering drugs is a fundamental duty of the nurse, ensuring that medications are given safely and according to protocols.

B. Monitoring clients for drug effects is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of medications and identifying any adverse reactions or complications.

C. Prescribing drugs is not a duty performed by nurses, as this responsibility typically falls under the purview of licensed practitioners such as physicians or nurse practitioners.

D. Evaluating clients for toxic effects is part of the nurse's responsibility to ensure patient safety and to respond to any signs of medication toxicity.

E. Educating clients/caregivers about drugs is a vital role for nurses, as it helps patients understand their medications and the importance of adherence to prescribed regimens.

A. Perform a blood sugar analysis. B. Have the client drink a 4-ounce (120-mL) glass of orange juice. C. Administer 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously. D. Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Performing a blood sugar analysis is important, but in the case of sudden symptoms such as weakness, shakiness, and dizziness, it is crucial to act quickly to address the potential hypoglycemia without delay.

B. Having the client drink a 4-ounce glass of orange juice is the most appropriate initial response as it provides a quick source of glucose to alleviate symptoms of hypoglycemia, which is a common concern in clients with type 1 diabetes experiencing these symptoms.

C. Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously is an effective treatment for hypoglycemia but is typically reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to consume oral glucose or is unconscious.

D. Administering 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously would exacerbate the problem by lowering blood sugar further and is contraindicated in a patient experiencing hypoglycemic symptoms.

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A client is receiving opioid therapy. The nurse should be alert to the possibility that which could occur if the client receives an opioid agonist-antagonist?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

In discussing the safe use of drugs in the institutional setting, what duty is performed by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes suddenly reports feeling weak, shaky, and dizzy. What should be the nurse's initial response?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client taking diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, for hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. The nurse will assess the client for which adverse effects?

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Which would be important to perform for a client who has received an anticholinergic agent? (Select all that apply.)

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