A cancer patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months’ duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone (OxyContin) and states it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
Pentazocine (Talwin) PO
Hydrocodone (Vicodin) PO
Fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch
Meperidine (Demerol) PO
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: NPH insulin is not mixed with insulin glargine, as glargine’s pH and formulation cause precipitation or altered pharmacokinetics when combined. NPH can be mixed with regular insulin, as they are compatible, making this choice incorrect for the patient’s reported practice.
Choice B reason: NPH and regular insulin are compatible and routinely mixed in one syringe to provide both intermediate and short-acting coverage. They don’t react chemically or lose efficacy when combined properly, making this choice incorrect, as mixing is a standard practice in diabetes management.
Choice C reason: Mixing NPH and regular insulin does not increase potency; it combines their pharmacokinetics for basal and prandial glucose control. The mixture delivers the additive effects of each insulin’s profile without enhancing overall potency, making this choice inaccurate for their combined action.
Choice D reason: Mixing NPH (intermediate-acting) and regular insulin (short-acting) is an accepted practice to manage type 1 diabetes with one injection, covering basal and prandial needs. Proper technique (drawing regular insulin first) ensures stability, making this the correct choice for the patient’s reported insulin administration.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L). While furosemide can cause hyponatremia, this value is not concerning. Hypokalemia is a greater risk with furosemide and digoxin, as it potentiates digoxin toxicity, making this choice less critical than potassium.
Choice B reason: Oxygen saturation of 95% is normal (95-100%). Crackles suggest pulmonary edema, but this saturation doesn’t indicate severe hypoxia requiring immediate action. Hypokalemia poses a greater risk with digoxin and furosemide, as it increases toxicity potential, making this choice less concerning.
Choice C reason: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (normal: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) indicates hypokalemia, exacerbated by furosemide’s diuretic effect. In digoxin use, low potassium increases cardiac toxicity risk, causing arrhythmias, especially with an irregular heart rate noted, making this the most concerning value requiring immediate attention.
Choice D reason: A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is normal (70-110 mg/dL fasting). It’s unrelated to digoxin or furosemide’s primary risks (e.g., electrolyte imbalances, arrhythmias). Hypokalemia is a more immediate concern due to its synergistic toxicity with digoxin, making this choice less critical.
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