A cancer patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months’ duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone (OxyContin) and states it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?
Pentazocine (Talwin) PO
Hydrocodone (Vicodin) PO
Fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch
Meperidine (Demerol) PO
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.
Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.
Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.
Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: NPH insulin is not mixed with insulin glargine, as glargine’s pH and formulation cause precipitation or altered pharmacokinetics when combined. NPH can be mixed with regular insulin, as they are compatible, making this choice incorrect for the patient’s reported practice.
Choice B reason: NPH and regular insulin are compatible and routinely mixed in one syringe to provide both intermediate and short-acting coverage. They don’t react chemically or lose efficacy when combined properly, making this choice incorrect, as mixing is a standard practice in diabetes management.
Choice C reason: Mixing NPH and regular insulin does not increase potency; it combines their pharmacokinetics for basal and prandial glucose control. The mixture delivers the additive effects of each insulin’s profile without enhancing overall potency, making this choice inaccurate for their combined action.
Choice D reason: Mixing NPH (intermediate-acting) and regular insulin (short-acting) is an accepted practice to manage type 1 diabetes with one injection, covering basal and prandial needs. Proper technique (drawing regular insulin first) ensures stability, making this the correct choice for the patient’s reported insulin administration.
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