A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

A. Have her do Kegel exercises once an hour. B. Apply ice to her perineal area. C. Keep her hips slightly elevated. D. Observe her perineal area for signs of infection.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Apply ice to her perineal area.This is because ice can help reduce swelling and pain in the episiotomy wound, which is a cut made in the tissue between the vagina and anus during childbirth.Ice should be applied for the first 24 to 48 hours after delivery.

Choice A is wrong because Kegel exercises, which involve contracting and relaxing the pelvic floor muscles, are not recommended for the first 12 hours after an episiotomy.They can increase blood flow and inflammation in the area, and may interfere with healing.

Choice C is wrong because keeping her hips slightly elevated can cause pressure on the episiotomy wound and increase discomfort.It can also affect blood circulation and drainage in the area.

Choice D is wrong because observing her perineal area for signs of infection is not a nursing action that should be included in her plan of care for the first 12 hours.Infection is rare in episiotomy wounds, and signs of infection usually appear after 24 hours or later.However, the nurse should teach the patient how to keep the area clean and dry, and when to report any signs of infection, such as fever, pus, or foul-smelling discharge.

Normal ranges for episiotomy healing are:

• Stitches dissolve within 2 to 4 weeks

• Pain and swelling subside within a few days to a week

• Wound heals completely within 4 to 6 weeks

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The physician prescribes prostaglandin (PGE2) gel for a patient being admitted for induction of labor. Which finding would best indicate that the prostaglandin gel is effective?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient had an episiotomy during her delivery. Which nursing action should be included in her plan of care for the first 12 hours?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient who is 17 weeks pregnant shares several pieces of information with the nurse. Which statement made by the patient would indicate the patient is at risk for having an infant with intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR)?

he nurse instructs a woman who is attending the infertility clinic about strategies designed to facilitate conception. Which statement by the patient would indicate that she understands the instructions?

A client who is 22 weeks pregnant with a twin gestation comes to the clinic. The nurse instructs the client in self-care for the third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement made by the client would indicate the need for further teaching?

A client who is two weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am having a small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

A client who is twO weeks postpartum calls the office and tells a nurse, "l am havinga small amount of brownish discharge from my vagina." Which response is appropriate for the nurse to make?

A nurse is caring for a patient being evaluated for sexually transmitted infection (STI).A negative rapid plasma reagin (RPR) indicates that a patient is probably not infected with which STI?

Just after a client delivers a baby who weighs 7 pounds (3.18 kg), what is the priority nursing action?

A patient with no prenatal care is admitted to the labor and delivery unit.She is placed on an external fetal monitor, and an intravenous infusion is begun. A tentative diagnosis of abruptio placentae is made.Which finding would support this diagnosis?