A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.
The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.
The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.
Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.
Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.
Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This means that the uterus is constantly contracted and does not relax between contractions.This can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall, which is called placental abruption or abruptio placentae.Placental abruption can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother.
Choice B is wrong because strong uterine contractions every 3-4 minutes are normal during labor and do not indicate placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because bile-colored vomitus is not a sign of placental abruption, but rather a sign of hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because fetal heart rate acceleration with fetal activity is a normal finding and indicates a healthy baby.Placental abruption can cause fetal distress and a decrease in fetal heart rate.
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