A patient with a history of mitral valve prolapse is admitted at 41 weeks gestation for induction of labor.The doctor prescribes intravenous antibiotic therapy for the patient to be given during labor.Based on this information, what is the primary reason for administering antibiotics to this patient at this time?

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.

The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis.

The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery. Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves. It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart. It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus. Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Massaging the uterus helps it contract and prevent excessive bleeding after delivery.Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus does not contract enough to clamp the blood vessels that supply the placenta, leading to postpartum hemorrhage.Uterine massage is one of the interventions to treat uterine atony and restore uterine tone.

Choice A is wrong because having the client void frequently does not directly affect the uterine contraction.However, a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause displacement of the uterus, so it is important to monitor the bladder status and empty it as needed.

Choice C is wrong because having the client in a side-lying position for comfort does not help with uterine contraction.However, this position may be beneficial for other reasons, such as reducing edema and pain in the perineal area.

Choice D is wrong because keeping the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus does not help with uterine contraction.In fact, early ambulation after delivery can help prevent thromboembolic complications and promote recovery.

Normal ranges for postpartum blood loss are less than 500 mL for vaginal delivery and less than 1000 mL for cesarean delivery.Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than or equal to 1000 mL or blood loss accompanied by signs or symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours after birth.

A. Forceps-assisted second stage of labor. B. Precipitous delivery. C. Prolonged first phase of labor. D. Cesarean delivery.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.

Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.

It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.

Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.

Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.

It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assigned to care for the postpartum client during her shift. The nurse knows one of the most common risk factors for early (PPH) postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. When providing care, the nurse would plan to:.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

When a pregnant patient has genital herpes, for which complication is the patient at higher risk than the general population?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The mother visits her infant in the nursery. The nurse shows the mother how to place her finger in the palm of the baby’s hand so that the baby will squeeze her finger.This behavior on the nurse’s part reflects an understanding of which principle?

When assessing a newborn, which is the best method for the nurse to use to elicit the Moro reflex?

A client in preterm labor tells the nurse, “It’s okay that I am in labor.I’m not worried. My sister’s baby was born this early, and he is doing great.” How should the nurse interpret this statement by the client? The client is:.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results of a pregnant patient.Which result will require further assessment?

In planning the postpartum care of a multipara who had a normal pregnancy, labor, and delivery, which factor should be considered? The client needs to have:

During the postpartal admission assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s perineum appears edematous and ecchymotic. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?

nurse hears a client in active labor say to her husband, “Don’t touch me. Stay away.” The husband states, “I don’t know what to do. Everything I do is wrong.” Which response by the nurse would be the most supportive?