A patient with a known heart condition is prescribed an antibiotic before a dental procedure. What type of antibiotic therapy is this considered?

Definitive

Empiric

Supportive

Prophylactic

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Definitive therapy targets a confirmed infection with antibiotics chosen based on culture results. Prescribing antibiotics before a dental procedure for a heart condition aims to prevent infection, not treat an existing one, making this incorrect for endocarditis prophylaxis.

Choice B reason: Empiric therapy involves antibiotics for suspected infections without confirmed pathogens. Antibiotics before dental procedures in heart patients prevent endocarditis, not treat suspected infections. This is a preventive measure based on risk, not empiric treatment, making this incorrect.

Choice C reason: Supportive therapy addresses symptoms or supports other treatments, not infection prevention. Antibiotics before dental procedures in patients with heart conditions (e.g., valvular disease) prevent bacterial endocarditis, a specific prophylactic measure, not supportive care, making this an incorrect classification.

Choice D reason: Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prevents infections in high-risk patients, such as those with heart conditions (e.g., mitral valve prolapse) before dental procedures. It reduces the risk of bacterial endocarditis from transient bacteremia, aligning with guidelines for prophylaxis in susceptible individuals, making this correct.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Orange-tinged urine is an expected effect of rifampin, not a therapeutic response. It results from the drug’s red-orange metabolite excreted in urine, not an indicator of tuberculosis resolution. Clinical improvement, like reduced symptoms and negative cultures, better reflects the effectiveness of antitubercular therapy.

Choice B reason: A therapeutic response to antitubercular therapy is indicated by decreased symptoms (e.g., cough, fever), improved chest radiographs (reduced infiltrates), and negative sputum cultures, showing reduced Mycobacterium tuberculosis burden. These objective measures confirm the drugs, like isoniazid and rifampin, are effectively killing the bacteria and resolving the infection.

Choice C reason: Increased tolerance to antitubercular therapy or fewer adverse effects does not indicate a therapeutic response. Tolerance reflects patient adaptation to side effects, not bacterial clearance. Objective measures like symptom reduction and negative cultures are needed to confirm the therapy’s effectiveness against tuberculosis.

Choice D reason: Negative PPD results are not used to monitor active tuberculosis treatment. PPD tests detect latent tuberculosis or prior exposure, not active disease. Therapeutic response is assessed through symptom improvement, chest imaging, and sputum cultures, which directly indicate the reduction of active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection.

A. Hair loss B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Heart failure D. Renal failure

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Hair loss is not a common side effect of isoniazid, nor is it prevented by pyridoxine. Isoniazid primarily causes hepatotoxicity or neurotoxicity due to its metabolism and pyridoxine depletion. Hair loss may occur with other drugs, but pyridoxine supplementation is unrelated to this effect.

Choice B reason: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is given with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy. Isoniazid depletes pyridoxine by forming inactive complexes, impairing nerve function and causing numbness or tingling. Supplementation restores pyridoxine levels, protecting peripheral nerves while allowing isoniazid to effectively treat tuberculosis by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis.

Choice C reason: Heart failure is not associated with isoniazid or prevented by pyridoxine. Isoniazid’s primary toxicities are hepatic and neurological. Pyridoxine supports nerve health, not cardiac function, and heart failure is more linked to drugs like anthracyclines, not antitubercular therapy.

Choice D reason: Renal failure is not a common side effect of isoniazid, nor is it prevented by pyridoxine. Isoniazid is metabolized by the liver, and its toxicities include hepatotoxicity and neuropathy. Pyridoxine addresses neurological side effects, not renal function, making this an incorrect choice.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A patient with a known heart condition is prescribed an antibiotic before a dental procedure. What type of antibiotic therapy is this considered?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient has been taking antitubercular therapy for 3 months. The nurse will assess for what findings that indicate a therapeutic response to the drug therapy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient who has been taking isoniazid has a new prescription for pyridoxine. She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is often given concurrently with isoniazid to prevent which condition?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A gardener needs a decongestant because of sinus problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants?

The prescriber has changed the patient’s medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) montelukast to treat asthma. The nurse will emphasize which point about this medication?

A patient who has been hospitalized for 2 weeks has developed a pressure ulcer that contains multidrug-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which drug would the nurse expect to be chosen for therapy?

Which of the following antibiotics is associated with a risk of tendon rupture?

Simvastatin has been prescribed for a patient, and the nurse is providing instructions to the patient about the medication. Which instructions will the nurse include? (Select all that apply)

A patient is receiving hydroxychloroquine therapy but tells the nurse that she has never traveled out of her city. The nurse knows that a possible reason for this drug therapy is which of these conditions?

A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis. The nurse is using a prefilled syringe with enoxaparin. Which action by the nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

A patient tells the nurse that he likes to eat large amounts of garlic to help lower his cholesterol levels naturally. The nurse reviews his medication history and notes which drug has a potential interaction with the garlic?