A patient with bipolar II disorder is most likely to experience:
Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania
Psychosis during manic episodes
Hypomanic episodes alternating with major depressive episodes
Severe manic episodes
The Correct Answer is C
A. Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania is not typical of bipolar II disorder, as hypomanic episodes are a key feature of the disorder.
B. Psychosis is more common during full manic episodes, typically seen in bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II.
C. Bipolar II disorder is characterized by hypomanic episodes that alternate with major depressive episodes. Hypomania is a less severe form of mania, and individuals with bipolar II do not experience full manic episodes as in bipolar I.
D. Severe manic episodes are characteristic of bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II, which involves hypomanic episodes instead.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdoses, not benzodiazepines.
B. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine, not an antagonist for benzodiazepines.
C. Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin (an anticoagulant), not benzodiazepines.
D. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or sedation.
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
50 mcg is to 1 tablet as 100 mcg is to x tablets
So, 50/1 = 100/x
Cross-multiplying: 50x = 100
Dividing both sides by 50: x = 2
Therefore, the nurse should administer 2 tablets daily.
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