A psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner buys an ownership stake in a behavioral health hospital with the expectation that she will be able to refer the hospital's clients to the outpatient clinic she owns. Which of the following best describes this scenario?
A savvy business plan
She is working outside her scope of practice by becoming an owner in a hospital
A violation of the Stark Law
She is practicing autonomy by acting in her own best interests
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: While financially strategic, the ownership arrangement raises legal and ethical concerns and cannot be considered purely a savvy business plan.
Choice B reason: Ownership of a hospital is not inherently outside the scope of practice, but the issue arises from the referral expectation and potential self-referral, not from ownership itself.
Choice C reason: The Stark Law prohibits physicians and certain healthcare providers from referring patients to facilities in which they have a financial interest if reimbursed by Medicare or Medicaid, making this scenario a legal violation.
Choice D reason: Acting in one’s self-interest in this way is ethically problematic and legally restricted; autonomy does not justify violation of federal law.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex. It does not produce dopamine.
Choice B reason: The amygdala is primarily involved in emotional processing, particularly fear and threat detection, but it is not a major site of dopamine production.
Choice C reason: The substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area are key dopaminergic nuclei in the brain. Dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra are involved in motor control pathways, while the ventral tegmental area is critical for reward, motivation, and reinforcement learning.
Choice D reason: The hippocampus is essential for memory formation and spatial navigation. Although dopamine modulates hippocampal activity, it is not produced there.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Onset prior to age 12 is true for ODD, but it alone is insufficient to rule out the diagnosis without considering symptom duration and severity.
Choice B reason: ODD is a recognized DSM-5 diagnosis, not just a behavioral issue, so this statement is incorrect.
Choice C reason: While symptom count and minimum duration are part of criteria, 3 months is shorter than the DSM-5 required 6-month duration.
Choice D reason: ODD requires at least six months of consistent patterns of anger, irritability, argumentative, defiant, or vindictive behavior, with at least four specific symptoms. Because this boy’s symptoms have been present for only 2 months, this helps the PMHNP rule out ODD.
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