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A school-aged client is receiving vancomycin, 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of 0.9% sodium chloride with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump? (Please enter the numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["67"]

Step 1: Convert the volume of fluid to be infused from mL to mL (since the rate is usually measured in mL/hr):

100 mL = 100 mL (No conversion needed as the volume is already in mL)

Step 2: Convert the time for infusion from hours to hours (since the rate is usually measured in mL/hr):

1.5 hours = 1.5 hours (No conversion needed as the time is already in hours)

Step 3: Calculate the rate (volume ÷ time):

Rate = Volume ÷ Time

Rate = 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours

Rate = 66.67 mL/hr

So, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver at a rate of 67 mL/hr (rounded to the nearest whole number

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Preparing for a cesarean delivery is not indicated solely based on the information provided. The patient is at 36 weeks with moderate pre-eclampsia and there are no immediate signs of fetal distress or a need for emergency delivery based on the nurse’s notes.
Choice B reason: Administering calcium gluconate is appropriate if there are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it acts as an antidote. The patient’s decreased level of consciousness and absent DTRs may suggest magnesium toxicity, making this a correct intervention.
Choice C reason: Obtaining blood pressure is a standard and ongoing requirement for monitoring a pre-eclampsia patient, especially after noting a significant drop in blood pressure from 170/98 mm Hg to 118/78 mm Hg, which could indicate an overcorrection or other issues.
Choice D reason: Stopping the infusion of magnesium sulfate is not indicated at this time. While the patient’s decreased LOC and absent DTRs are concerning, magnesium sulfate is critical for preventing seizures in pre-eclampsia and should not be stopped without clear signs of overdose and physician consultation.
Choice E reason: Increasing IV fluids is not indicated and could be harmful. The patient already has pulmonary edema and increasing fluids could exacerbate this condition, especially in the context of pre-eclampsia where fluid management needs to be carefully balanced.
Choice F reason: Administering oxygen is correct as the patient’s oxygen saturation has dropped from 98% to 93%, and the goal is to maintain it above 96% as per the physician’s orders.
Choice G reason: Obtaining serum magnesium level is correct because it is necessary to monitor for signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity given the patient’s symptoms of decreased LOC and absent DTRs.
Choice H reason: Preparing to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest is correct as the patient has signs that may suggest impending magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.

A. Remove dentures or other oral appliances. B. Lift and lock the side rails in place. C. Apply the client's positive airway pressure device. D. Elevate the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Removing dentures or other oral appliances may be necessary for some medical procedures, but it is not the most important intervention for a client with OSA who has just received an opioid patch.

Choice B reason: Lifting and locking the side rails in place is a standard safety measure, but it does not directly address the respiratory concerns associated with OSA and opioid use.

Choice C reason: Applying the client's positive airway pressure device is the most important intervention. Opioids can depress respiration, and for a client with OSA, ensuring the airway is patent and supported by a positive airway pressure device is crucial to prevent respiratory complications.

Choice D reason: Elevating the head of the bed can aid in respiration, but it is not as immediately critical as ensuring the use of a positive airway pressure device for a client with OSA who is receiving opioids.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Patient Data Exhibits The nurse reviews the assessment findings along with the physician orders. Which immediate interventions would the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","F","G","H"]

Explanation

The nurse places an opioid patch on the chest of a client with intractable pain who also has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement before leaving the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

One hour following cardiac catheterization via the left femoral site, a client reports feeling weak and dizzy. Assessment reveals that the client's dressing is dry and intact. Which action should the nurse take next?

Following a cardiac catheterization and placement of a stent in the right coronary artery, the nurse administers prasugrel to the client. To monitor for adverse effects from the medication, which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

A nurse is caring for a client who reports having run out of aspirin a week ago and has been taking ibuprofen as a substitute. Which information should the nurse obtain from the client first?

A client arrives for an annual physical exam and reports having calf pain. The client's health history includes peripheral arterial disease. Which question should the nurse ask the client about expected findings related to chronic arterial symptoms?

A client who is one day postpartum reports to the nurse that her baby cannot latch onto the breast. The nurse observes that the client's nipples are inverted. Which action should the nurse implement?

The hospice nurse is teaching the family of a client receiving palliative care at home how to provide care. Which instruction should the nurse provide?