A senior nurse is providing instructions to a newly hired nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The senior nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Hydrochlorothiazide
Metolazone
The Correct Answer is A
A) Spironolactone:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Unlike other diuretics, spironolactone works by antagonizing aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. By blocking aldosterone's action, spironolactone prevents the kidneys from excreting potassium, thus increasing potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia). Additionally, spironolactone can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels), as it also causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
B) Furosemide:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is typically used in heart failure to remove excess fluid. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle, which increases urine output. While furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the increased excretion of potassium, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C) Hydrochlorothiazide:
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney, leading to increased urine production. Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the enhanced excretion of both electrolytes.
D) Metolazone:
Metolazone is also a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to hydrochlorothiazide. It can cause hypokalemia and hyponatremia, but like hydrochlorothiazide, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia. Metolazone is more potent than hydrochlorothiazide but still does not carry the risk of hyperkalemia like spironolactone does.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Crackles upon auscultation:
Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left ventricle is unable to effectively pump blood to the body, causing blood to back up into the lungs. This results in pulmonary congestion, which often manifests as crackles (also called rales) upon auscultation, particularly in the lower lobes of the lungs. The crackles are caused by the fluid accumulation in the alveoli, a hallmark sign of left-sided heart failure.
B) Palpable liver during assessment:
A palpable liver is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. In right-sided heart failure, the blood backs up into the venous system, causing congestion in organs such as the liver and spleen. This leads to hepatomegaly (enlargement of the liver), which can be palpated during physical examination. Therefore, a palpable liver is not typically a manifestation of left-sided heart failure.
C) Pitting Edema:
Pitting edema is more characteristic of right-sided heart failure. When the right ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively, blood backs up in the systemic circulation, leading to fluid retention and edema in the lower extremities, abdomen (ascites), or other dependent areas. While pitting edema can occur in left-sided heart failure, it is more commonly a finding in right-sided heart failure or congestive heart failure.
D) Distended jugular veins:
Distended jugular veins (JVD) are also a sign of right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. When the right side of the heart fails, blood backs up in the venous system, leading to increased venous pressure, which can be observed as jugular venous distension. This is a key finding in right-sided heart failure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Women should start yearly mammograms at age 40:
Mammography is a key screening tool for breast cancer detection. According to guidelines from the American Cancer Society (ACS) and other leading health organizations, women should begin annual mammograms at age 40. This recommendation applies to average-risk women who are not showing any symptoms of breast cancer. Mammograms are effective in detecting early-stage breast cancer, which is crucial for better treatment outcomes.
B) Women should have a yearly clinical breast examination starting at age 50:
The clinical breast examination (CBE) is a physical exam performed by a healthcare provider to check for breast cancer. However, the recommendation is to have a clinical breast examination every 1-3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and annually for women 40 and older, not just beginning at age 50. It is not necessary to wait until age 50 to start yearly CBEs.
C) Clients should have fecal occult blood test every other year:
The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is used to detect hidden blood in the stool, which may be a sign of colon cancer. However, this test is not typically performed every other year for all clients. The recommended schedule for colorectal cancer screening depends on risk factors. The American Cancer Society recommends annual FOBT or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) for clients over the age of 45 who are at average risk for colon cancer. More invasive tests, such as colonoscopy, are generally recommended for people at higher risk or after positive results from non-invasive tests like FOBT.
D) Clients should have a colonoscopy at age 40 and every 10 years thereafter:
The recommended age for the first colonoscopy is age 45 for individuals at average risk of colorectal cancer, not 40. Colonoscopies are typically performed every 10 years after the initial screening unless there are risk factors (e.g., family history, genetic conditions) that require earlier or more frequent screenings.
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