A senior nurse is providing instructions to a newly hired nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The senior nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

Spironolactone

Furosemide

Hydrochlorothiazide

Metolazone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Spironolactone:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Unlike other diuretics, spironolactone works by antagonizing aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. By blocking aldosterone's action, spironolactone prevents the kidneys from excreting potassium, thus increasing potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia). Additionally, spironolactone can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels), as it also causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water, diluting sodium levels in the blood.

B) Furosemide:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is typically used in heart failure to remove excess fluid. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle, which increases urine output. While furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the increased excretion of potassium, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia.

C) Hydrochlorothiazide:
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney, leading to increased urine production. Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the enhanced excretion of both electrolytes.

D) Metolazone:
Metolazone is also a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to hydrochlorothiazide. It can cause hypokalemia and hyponatremia, but like hydrochlorothiazide, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia. Metolazone is more potent than hydrochlorothiazide but still does not carry the risk of hyperkalemia like spironolactone does.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not normal responses to the edrophonium test and suggest a cholinergic crisis rather than a simple reaction to the medication. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overmedication with cholinergic drugs, leading to excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. While mild effects like slight nausea or dizziness can occur, cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions indicate toxicity, requiring immediate intervention.

B) Administration of atropine: The symptoms the patient is exhibiting—cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions—are indicative of cholinergic toxicity. Edrophonium, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is used in the Tensilon test to diagnose myasthenia gravis by temporarily improving muscle strength. However, in some cases, the patient may experience a cholinergic crisis from an overdose of the medication, resulting in excess acetylcholine at synapses, which overstimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. Atropine, an anticholinergic agent, blocks the effects of acetylcholine and is used to reverse these symptoms by reducing the excessive parasympathetic activity (e.g., reducing secretions and improving heart rate).

C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position: The Trendelenburg position (head down, feet up) is often used in cases of shock to help increase venous return to the heart. However, it is not appropriate for a cholinergic crisis. The patient’s symptoms are not due to hypotension or shock but are related to an overdose of edrophonium causing parasympathetic overstimulation.

D) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not related to an allergic reaction. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine used for allergic reactions, such as urticaria or anaphylaxis, but it does not treat cholinergic toxicity.

A. Limit fluid intake B. Utilize assistive devices as needed C. Schedule eye examinations every other year D. Double up on any missed scheduled medications

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Limit fluid intake:
There is no evidence to suggest that limiting fluid intake is necessary or beneficial for clients with multiple sclerosis (MS). In fact, staying well-hydrated is often encouraged, especially for individuals with bladder dysfunction or those at risk for urinary retention or constipation, which are common symptoms of MS. Restricting fluid intake could exacerbate these issues and is not a priority in MS management.

B) Utilize assistive devices as needed:
The most important aspect of teaching for a client recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is to encourage the use of assistive devices as needed. MS often causes mobility issues, weakness, and coordination difficulties due to damage to the nervous system. Using devices like canes, walkers, or wheelchairs can significantly improve independence and safety, helping the client maintain mobility and prevent falls

C) Schedule eye examinations every other year:
Eye problems, such as optic neuritis or diplopia (double vision), are common in MS, but the frequency of eye exams depends on the individual’s symptoms. Regular eye exams are important, but every other year is generally not frequent enough. Most MS patients are advised to have annual eye exams or as recommended by their ophthalmologist, especially if they experience any changes in vision.

D) Double up on any missed scheduled medications:
Doubling up on missed medications is not recommended, as it can lead to overdose or increase the risk of side effects. It is important to follow the prescribed medication regimen and use strategies to help the client remember their medications, such as setting reminders or using a medication organizer.

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A senior nurse is providing instructions to a newly hired nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The senior nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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