A senior nurse is providing instructions to a newly hired nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The senior nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

Spironolactone

Furosemide

Hydrochlorothiazide

Metolazone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Spironolactone:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Unlike other diuretics, spironolactone works by antagonizing aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. By blocking aldosterone's action, spironolactone prevents the kidneys from excreting potassium, thus increasing potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia). Additionally, spironolactone can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels), as it also causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water, diluting sodium levels in the blood.

B) Furosemide:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is typically used in heart failure to remove excess fluid. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle, which increases urine output. While furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the increased excretion of potassium, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia.

C) Hydrochlorothiazide:
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney, leading to increased urine production. Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the enhanced excretion of both electrolytes.

D) Metolazone:
Metolazone is also a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to hydrochlorothiazide. It can cause hypokalemia and hyponatremia, but like hydrochlorothiazide, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia. Metolazone is more potent than hydrochlorothiazide but still does not carry the risk of hyperkalemia like spironolactone does.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Retake the vital signs:
While taking vital signs is important, the client’s vital signs (respiratory rate of 13 bpm, oxygen saturation of 92%, and normal skin color) suggest that there is no immediate crisis, such as a sudden drop in oxygen saturation or significant hemodynamic instability. Therefore, retaking the vital signs would not address the most urgent issue at the moment, which is the client's shortness of breath while laying down.

B) Call the healthcare provider:
Calling the healthcare provider may eventually be necessary if the patient's condition worsens or remains unrelieved after interventions. However, the first priority should be to manage the client’s immediate symptoms and improve their comfort. The client’s complaint of shortness of breath when lying down suggests that the positioning may be a contributing factor to their discomfort.

C) Place the client in Fowler's position:
The most appropriate first action for a client with end-stage COPD and shortness of breath while lying down is to place the client in Fowler's position. This position (sitting upright, typically at a 45-60° angle) helps to improve lung expansion and reduce the workload of breathing by using gravity to assist in lung ventilation. It also promotes diaphragmatic breathing, which can relieve the feeling of breathlessness.

D) Increase the oxygen rate:
The client is already on 6 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula and has an oxygen saturation of 92%, which is within an acceptable range for a patient with COPD. Increasing the oxygen rate further could risk causing oxygen toxicity or lead to CO2 retention in clients with COPD, as their respiratory drive is often driven by low oxygen levels rather than high carbon dioxide levels. Thus, increasing the oxygen rate should be done cautiously and only if clinically indicated by a healthcare provider.

A. Sodium 136 mEq/L B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L C. Calcium 10 mg/dL D. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Sodium 136 mEq/L:
A sodium level of 136 mEq/L is within the normal reference range of 135–145 mEq/L. While clients with heart failure may experience fluid shifts and altered sodium levels, this result does not immediately require reporting to the provider. Sodium at this level is considered normal.

B) Potassium 4.5 mEq/L:
A potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L is within the normal range of 3.5–5.0 mEq/L, making it a safe and appropriate level. There is no immediate concern regarding potassium levels here, so no action is required. This value does not need to be reported to the provider.

C) Calcium 10 mg/dL:
The normal range for calcium is generally between 8.5–10.5 mg/dL. A calcium level of 10 mg/dL is within this normal range, so this finding does not require further action. No reporting is necessary to the provider.

D) Potassium 2.9 mEq/L:
A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5–5.0 mEq/L) and is considered hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion by increasing renal excretion of potassium. This is a serious concern because hypokalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other complications. The nurse should immediately report this low potassium level to the provider so that potassium supplementation or adjustments in diuretic therapy can be made.

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A senior nurse is providing instructions to a newly hired nurse about caring for clients who are receiving diuretic therapy to treat heart failure. The senior nurse should explain that which of the following medications puts clients at risk for both hyperkalemia and hyponatremia?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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