The nurse working in the Neuro ICU is caring for a client with Guillain Barre Syndrome. Which of the following activities would be best assigned to the Licensed practical nurse (LPN)?
Begin initial discharge teaching on home care activities
Begin administration of red blood cells
Reassess the clients mobility in the upper extremity
Administration of morphine for pain
The Correct Answer is D
A) Begin initial discharge teaching on home care activities:
While discharge teaching is a vital part of the care process, it is typically an activity assigned to a registered nurse (RN) because it involves comprehensive patient education on topics such as medication management, follow-up care, and recognizing signs of complications. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) often requires intensive care in the acute phase, and the RN is responsible for evaluating the client’s readiness for discharge and ensuring they fully understand the care required at home
B) Begin administration of red blood cells:
Administering blood products, such as red blood cells, requires close monitoring for potential reactions, and it is typically the responsibility of the RN. The RN must assess the client’s baseline status, monitor for transfusion reactions, and adjust care accordingly during the procedure. This task requires a higher level of clinical judgment and nursing knowledge than an LPN.
C) Reassess the client's mobility in the upper extremity:
Reassessing a client’s mobility, especially in a neurological condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome, requires detailed and ongoing assessment to determine changes in the patient’s strength, motor function, and overall neurological status. This activity is a more complex task that requires a registered nurse's clinical expertise.
D) Administration of morphine for pain:
The administration of pain medications, including morphine, can be appropriately assigned to the LPN under the supervision of an RN. The LPN is trained to administer medications and monitor for common side effects such as respiratory depression, especially in clients who may be at risk due to their neurological condition. However, it is essential for the LPN to communicate with the RN and report any significant changes in the client’s condition during pain management.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Normal saline 1 liter to client who is dehydrated:
Administering normal saline to a dehydrated client is an important task, as it helps to restore fluid balance and improve circulatory volume. However, while rehydration is critical, it is not an immediate, life-threatening priority compared to other interventions. The nurse should begin this infusion after addressing more urgent needs such as severe chest pain, which could indicate a cardiac emergency.
B) Morphine sulfate 4mg intravenously (IV) now for the client experiencing incisional pain:
Morphine is a potent analgesic, and relieving pain for postoperative patients is essential for comfort and recovery. However, incisional pain, although important to address, is not life-threatening in this scenario. The client with chest pain should be prioritized because chest pain could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI) or other serious cardiac event that requires immediate intervention.
C) Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) 0.4 mg sublingually (SL) stat for the client experiencing crushing chest pain:
Crushing chest pain is a classic symptom of acute myocardial infarction (MI), a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain associated with angina or MI by dilating the coronary arteries and improving blood flow to the heart. In this case, chest pain is the most critical symptom, and immediate treatment is necessary to reduce the risk of further cardiac damage or complications.
D) Lorazepam 2 mg IV now for the client who is anxious and restless:
While lorazepam is an effective medication for anxiety and restlessness, it is not the most urgent medication in this case. The client’s anxiety should be addressed, but it does not pose an immediate threat to life. Anxiety can generally be managed after more acute, life-threatening conditions (such as chest pain) are stabilized.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) A corticosteroid such as fluticasone:
While corticosteroids, such as fluticasone, are effective for managing chronic asthma and preventing inflammation over time, they are not the first-line treatment during an acute asthma attack. Corticosteroids are typically used for long-term control and maintenance therapy, not for rapid relief of symptoms in an acute exacerbation. Immediate relief is needed in acute situations, which corticosteroids alone do not provide.
B) A long-acting beta 2 agonist such as salmeterol:
Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABAs), such as salmeterol, are used for maintenance therapy to prevent asthma attacks and should not be used for the immediate treatment of an acute asthma exacerbation. They take longer to start working, and their role is to provide prolonged bronchodilation over time, not to relieve sudden bronchoconstriction.
C) A short-acting beta 2 agonist such as albuterol:
During an acute asthma attack, the immediate goal is to relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Short-acting beta-2 agonists like albuterol are the first-line treatment because they quickly relax the smooth muscles of the airways, leading to bronchodilation. Albuterol works within minutes, providing rapid relief from the symptoms of wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness.
D) Methylxanthines such as Theophylline:
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline) were once used for asthma management but are no longer considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations due to their narrow therapeutic range and the potential for toxicity. While theophylline can provide bronchodilation, its onset of action is slower than that of beta-agonists like albuterol, and it is generally reserved for more chronic management of asthma or severe cases where other medications are not effective.
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