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A student nurse documents the following: Lower left leg cool, mild edema, with dorsalis pedis, posterior knee and femoral pulse normal. How should this documentation be charted to communicate the assessment using appropriate medical terminology?

Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal.

Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.

B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.

C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.

D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Talking in a loud voice: While this may indicate some level of distress or confusion, it does not necessarily signal a specific neurological deficit. Clients may raise their voice for various reasons unrelated to neurological issues.

B) Grimacing with movement: This could suggest discomfort or pain but is not an explicit indicator of neurological impairment. Grimacing can occur for many reasons, including musculoskeletal issues or emotional responses, and does not specifically necessitate a focused neurological assessment.

C) Asymmetry of the client's smile: This finding is significant and raises concerns about potential neurological issues, such as a stroke or Bell's palsy. Facial asymmetry may indicate weakness or dysfunction in the cranial nerves responsible for facial movement, warranting a more thorough neurological examination to assess for underlying causes.

D) Inability to follow directions: While this may point to confusion or cognitive impairment, it is a more general indicator and could result from various factors, including anxiety or lack of understanding. It does not specifically highlight a localized neurological deficit as clearly as facial asymmetry does.

A. Short stature B. Anorexia C. 39 years of age D. Female gender

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Short stature: While body height can play a role in overall musculoskeletal health, short stature is not specifically identified as a risk factor for disc herniation. Other physical characteristics have a more direct impact on spinal issues.

B) Anorexia: Although nutritional status is important for general health, anorexia is not a recognized risk factor for disc herniation. The condition is more related to physical stressors and age rather than dietary habits alone.

C) 39 years of age: Age is a significant risk factor for disc herniation. Most cases occur in adults aged 30 to 50, as degenerative changes in the spine increase vulnerability to herniation. At 39, the client falls within this high-risk age range.

D) Female gender: While certain musculoskeletal conditions may vary by gender, disc herniation does not have a strong gender predisposition. Both men and women are equally affected, making this option less relevant as a specific risk factor.

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A student nurse documents the following: Lower left leg cool, mild edema, with dorsalis pedis, posterior knee and femoral pulse normal. How should this documentation be charted to communicate the assessment using appropriate medical terminology?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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Explanation

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