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A student nurse documents the following: Lower left leg cool, mild edema, with dorsalis pedis, posterior knee and femoral pulse normal. How should this documentation be charted to communicate the assessment using appropriate medical terminology?

Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2.

Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal.

Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Left extremity cool to touch, normal pitting edema, with femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: While this option describes the left extremity and includes some relevant details, it inaccurately uses "normal pitting edema" without specifying the degree of edema clearly. Additionally, it lists the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal, which is more appropriate given the anatomical location.

B) Left lower extremity cool to touch, +2 pitting edema, with femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis pulses palpable, +2: This documentation accurately describes the left lower extremity, specifies the degree of edema as "+2," and correctly identifies the relevant pulses as femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. This terminology is clear and concise, providing a comprehensive assessment of the vascular status.

C) Left lower leg cool to touch, +4 edema with femoral, posterial tibial, dorsalis and pedis pulses normal: This option incorrectly reports the degree of edema as "+4," which indicates severe swelling, not matching the original assessment of "mild edema." It also incorrectly lists the posterior tibial pulse, which should be popliteal.

D) Left lower leg normal cool temperature, slight swelling, femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses normal: The term "normal cool temperature" is confusing and not standard terminology. Additionally, "slight swelling" lacks specificity regarding the degree of edema, which is important for a clinical assessment. Furthermore, it inaccurately refers to the posterior tibial pulse instead of the popliteal.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Symmetry of lesions: While asymmetry can be a concern when assessing moles, it is not the most critical indicator when a lesion has already shown signs of burning and bleeding. Symmetry is one aspect of the overall assessment but does not immediately indicate danger in this scenario.
B) Border regularity: Irregular borders can suggest malignancy; however, the presence of burning and bleeding is a more pressing sign that warrants immediate attention. While border irregularity is important to assess, it is not as concerning as changes in color or the presence of symptoms like bleeding.
C) Diameter less than 6 mm: A diameter less than 6 mm is generally considered a normal size for moles and is not indicative of malignancy on its own. In this case, the burning and bleeding of the mole are more significant findings that raise concern, regardless of its size.
D) Color variation: Color variation in a pigmented lesion is a significant danger sign, as it can indicate changes that may suggest malignancy, especially when combined with other concerning symptoms like burning and bleeding. Variability in color may indicate the presence of different cell types and is a key factor in assessing the risk of melanoma.

A. Obtain an order for a catheter B. Allow the client to walk independently C. Obtain a bedside commode D. Limit fluid intake

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Obtain an order for a catheter: While catheterization can help manage elimination needs, it is generally considered a more invasive approach and is not the first line of action unless absolutely necessary. The goal should be to maintain the client’s dignity and encourage as much independence as safely possible.

B) Allow the client to walk independently: Given that the Romberg test is positive, indicating potential balance issues, allowing the client to walk independently could increase the risk of falls and injury. Safety is a primary concern in this situation.

C) Obtain a bedside commode: This intervention is appropriate as it provides a safe and accessible option for the client to meet their elimination needs without the need to navigate to a bathroom, which may be challenging given their balance issues. A bedside commode allows for easier access while minimizing the risk of falls.

D) Limit fluid intake: Limiting fluid intake is not a safe or effective way to address elimination needs and could lead to dehydration and other complications. Encouraging appropriate fluid intake is important for overall health, provided the client can manage elimination safely.

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A student nurse documents the following: Lower left leg cool, mild edema, with dorsalis pedis, posterior knee and femoral pulse normal. How should this documentation be charted to communicate the assessment using appropriate medical terminology?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of his moles has started to burn and bleed. The nurse should pay close attention to danger signs for pigmented lesions, and would be concerned with which additional finding?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the medical unit. The healthcare provider states that the client's Romberg test is positive. In order to meet this client's elimination needs, which intervention will the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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