A woman visits the family planning clinic to request a prescription for birth control pills.
Which factor would indicate that an ovulation suppressant would not be the best contraceptive method for her?
She is 30 years old.
She has a family history of thromboembolism.
She has irregular menstrual cycles.
She has a history of allergy to foreign protein.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Age alone is not a contraindication for the use of ovulation suppressants. Many women safely and effectively use these methods of contraception into their 30s and beyond.
Choice B rationale
This is the correct answer. A family history of thromboembolism can increase the risk of developing blood clots, a potential side effect of hormonal contraceptives like birth control pills.
Choice C rationale
Irregular menstrual cycles can sometimes be regulated by the use of hormonal contraceptives, so this would not necessarily indicate that an ovulation suppressant is not a good choice.
Choice D rationale
An allergy to foreign protein is not typically a contraindication for the use of ovulation suppressants. Birth control Explore
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While male condoms are a widely used method of contraception, they are not the most reliable. They have a typical use failure rate of about 13%, meaning that 13 out of 100 women will become pregnant in a year of using this method.
Choice B rationale
The diaphragm with spermicide is less reliable than some other methods of contraception. Its typical use failure rate is about 17%89.
Choice C rationale
Oral contraceptives are more reliable than condoms or diaphragms, with a typical use failure rate of about 7%. However, they require daily adherence and can have side effects.
Choice D rationale
The intrauterine device (IUD) is one of the most reliable methods of contraception. It has a typical use failure rate of less than 1%. It is also long-lasting and does not require daily adherence.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An irregular fetal heart rate is not a typical finding in a hydatidiform mole. In a complete molar pregnancy, no embryo forms, and thus, there would be no fetal heart rate to measure.
Choice B rationale
While vaginal discharge can occur in a molar pregnancy, it is typically described as brownish or bloody, not clear.
Choice C rationale
Excessive uterine enlargement is a common symptom of a hydatidiform mole. This occurs because the abnormal placental tissue grows rapidly, which can cause the uterus to expand more quickly than it would in a normal pregnancy.
Choice D rationale
In a molar pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels typically rise more rapidly than they would in a normal pregnancy, not decline rapidly.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
