After teaching a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), a nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which menu selection indicates that the client correctly understands the dietary teaching?
Ham sandwich on white bread, cup of applesauce, carbonated beverage.
Broiled chicken with brown rice, steamed broccoli, glass of apple juice.
Grilled cheese sandwich, small banana, cup of hot tea with lemon.
Baked tilapia, fresh green beans, cup of coffee with low-fat milk.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: White bread and carbonated beverages may trigger IBS symptoms like bloating. Chicken, rice, and broccoli are low-irritant, making this incorrect, as it includes potential IBS triggers compared to the nurse’s teaching on a suitable diet for symptom management.
Choice B reason: Broiled chicken, brown rice, and steamed broccoli are low-irritant, high-fiber foods, with apple juice being IBS-friendly. This aligns with dietary recommendations for IBS, making it the correct menu selection showing the client’s understanding of the nurse’s teaching.
Choice C reason: Grilled cheese’s dairy and hot tea’s caffeine may exacerbate IBS symptoms. Chicken and rice are safer, making this incorrect, as it includes potential irritants compared to the nurse’s teaching on a diet that minimizes IBS symptom triggers for the client.
Choice D reason: Coffee, even with low-fat milk, is a known IBS trigger due to caffeine. Chicken, rice, and broccoli are better choices, making this incorrect, as it includes a stimulant that contradicts the nurse’s dietary teaching for managing irritable bowel syndrome effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","G","I"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased cardiac output is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock, as the heart fails to pump adequately. This aligns with shock pathophysiology, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client for cardiogenic shock in a clinical setting.
Choice B reason: Increased pulse rate occurs in cardiogenic shock as the body compensates for low cardiac output. This aligns with cardiovascular assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would identify in a client experiencing cardiogenic shock during evaluation.
Choice C reason: Postural hypotension is more typical of hypovolemic or orthostatic issues, not cardiogenic shock, which features weak pulses. Weak thready pulse is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary sign of cardiogenic shock in the nurse’s assessment.
Choice D reason: Bounding pulse suggests hyperdynamic circulation, not cardiogenic shock, where perfusion is poor. Weak thready pulse is typical, making this incorrect, as it does not reflect the compromised cardiac output expected in the nurse’s evaluation of cardiogenic shock.
Choice E reason: Weak thready pulse indicates poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock due to reduced cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral vascular assessment, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect when assessing a client in cardiogenic shock.
Choice F reason: Hypertension is not typical in cardiogenic shock, which often presents with hypotension due to pump failure. Pink frothy sputum is correct, making this incorrect, as it contradicts the hemodynamic profile in the nurse’s assessment of cardiogenic shock.
Choice G reason: Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds reflects poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock, consistent with low cardiac output. This aligns with peripheral assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would note in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Choice H reason: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds suggests normal perfusion, not cardiogenic shock, where refill is delayed. Greater than 3 seconds is correct, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the poor perfusion in cardiogenic shock assessment.
Choice I reason: Pink frothy sputum indicates pulmonary edema, common in cardiogenic shock due to left heart failure. This aligns with respiratory assessment findings, making it a correct manifestation the nurse would expect in a client with cardiogenic shock.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring for further occurrences is passive and doesn’t address the immediate breach of confidentiality. Advising to stop the conversation protects the client, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s priority of halting the unethical discussion promptly.
Choice B reason: Advising the nurses to cease their communication is the first action to stop the breach of client confidentiality in a public setting. This aligns with ethical and privacy standards, making it the correct initial step for the newly licensed RN to take.
Choice C reason: Informing the manager is important but secondary to stopping the conversation to prevent further disclosure. Advising to cease is immediate, making this incorrect, as it’s not the first action the RN should take to address the confidentiality breach.
Choice D reason: Submitting a report follows stopping the conversation and notifying the manager. Advising to cease is the first step, making this incorrect, as it delays the RN’s priority of immediately halting the nurses’ inappropriate discussion about the client.
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