A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a blood pressure of 254/139 mm Hg. The nurse recognizes that the client is in a hypertensive crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Initiate seizure precautions.
Tell the client to report vision changes.
Elevate the head of the client’s bed.
Start a peripheral IV.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Seizure precautions are relevant but secondary to establishing IV access for antihypertensive administration in hypertensive crisis. Starting an IV enables immediate treatment, making this incorrect, as it delays the critical intervention needed to lower the client’s dangerously high blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Instructing to report vision changes monitors complications but doesn’t address the urgent need to lower blood pressure. IV access facilitates medication delivery, making this incorrect, as it postpones the primary action for managing the client’s hypertensive crisis effectively.
Choice C reason: Hypertensive crisis can cause severe headache, risk for stroke, pulmonary edema, and difficulty breathing. Elevating the HOB improves cerebral perfusion, reduces intracranial pressure, and eases breathing. This is an immediate, noninvasive, airway/circulation-supportive intervention.
Choice D reason: Needed for IV antihypertensive administration, but initial safety and circulation support (C) takes priority before establishing access.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering furosemide without a provider’s order is outside nursing scope and risks harm. Decreasing IV fluids addresses elevated CVP, making this incorrect, as it bypasses protocol compared to the nurse’s priority of adjusting fluids and consulting the provider.
Choice B reason: A CVP of 16 cm H2O suggests fluid overload; decreasing IV fluids and notifying the provider prevents worsening heart failure. This aligns with hemodynamic monitoring protocols, making it the correct action for the nurse to take to address the client’s elevated CVP.
Choice C reason: Documenting the CVP is necessary but doesn’t address the urgent fluid overload indicated by 16 cm H2O. Decreasing fluids is proactive, making this incorrect, as it delays intervention compared to the nurse’s priority of managing the client’s high CVP.
Choice D reason: Checking urine specific gravity assesses hydration but is less urgent than addressing elevated CVP with fluid adjustment. Notifying the provider takes precedence, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s action to manage fluid overload immediately.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Unprotected sex is a risk for hepatitis B or C, not A, which is fecal-oral. Shellfish consumption is a common source, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t support the nurse’s diagnosis of hepatitis A based on the client’s history.
Choice B reason: Eating contaminated shellfish is a common cause of hepatitis A, transmitted via the fecal-oral route, with symptoms appearing 2-6 weeks later. This aligns with the diagnosis, making it the correct statement supporting the client’s hepatitis A diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Sharing needles spreads hepatitis B or C, not A, which is foodborne. Shellfish is a hepatitis A source, making this incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s evaluation of the client’s flu-like symptoms and jaundice.
Choice D reason: Blood transfusions before 1992 risked hepatitis C, not A, which is fecal-oral. Eating shellfish supports hepatitis A, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t align with the nurse’s diagnosis based on the client’s jaundice and flu-like symptoms.
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