A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a blood pressure of 254/139 mm Hg. The nurse recognizes that the client is in a hypertensive crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Initiate seizure precautions.
Tell the client to report vision changes.
Elevate the head of the client’s bed.
Start a peripheral IV.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Seizure precautions are relevant but secondary to establishing IV access for antihypertensive administration in hypertensive crisis. Starting an IV enables immediate treatment, making this incorrect, as it delays the critical intervention needed to lower the client’s dangerously high blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Instructing to report vision changes monitors complications but doesn’t address the urgent need to lower blood pressure. IV access facilitates medication delivery, making this incorrect, as it postpones the primary action for managing the client’s hypertensive crisis effectively.
Choice C reason: Elevating the bed may reduce intracranial pressure but is less urgent than starting an IV for antihypertensive drugs. IV access is the priority, making this incorrect, as it delays the critical intervention to manage the client’s severe hypertension in the emergency department.
Choice D reason: Starting a peripheral IV is the first action to enable rapid administration of antihypertensive medications in hypertensive crisis. This aligns with emergency care protocols for blood pressure 254/139 mm Hg, making it the correct initial step to stabilize the client’s condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Supplemental oxygen is unnecessary with a normal respiratory rate (16) and stable vitals. Maintaining the collar prevents spinal injury, making this incorrect, as it’s not indicated compared to the nurse’s priority of ensuring spinal stability in a client with a fall history.
Choice B reason: Morphine for pain is premature without confirming spinal stability, as it may mask symptoms. Keeping the collar in place is critical, making this incorrect, as it risks missing neurological changes in the nurse’s care of a potential spinal injury client.
Choice C reason: Keeping the hard collar in place until cleared by imaging prevents worsening of potential spinal injury after a trampoline fall. This aligns with trauma care protocols, making it the correct action for the nurse to take to ensure the client’s safety and stability.
Choice D reason: Methylprednisolone is used for confirmed spinal cord injury, not suspected cases without imaging. Maintaining the collar is the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s premature compared to the nurse’s focus on spinal precautions in a client with numbness and tingling.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Inverted T waves suggest ischemia but are less specific than troponin I, which confirms myocardial damage in ACS. This is incorrect, as it’s not the most significant finding within 3 hours compared to the nurse’s reliance on biomarkers for diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia, not ACS, which is diagnosed by troponin elevation. This is incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s expected finding for acute coronary syndrome within the first 3 hours of symptom onset.
Choice C reason: Elevated troponin I is the most significant finding for ACS, indicating myocardial necrosis within 3 hours. This aligns with diagnostic criteria, making it the correct biomarker the nurse would prioritize to confirm acute coronary syndrome in the client.
Choice D reason: Troponin T is also specific for ACS but rises slightly later than troponin I, which is detectable sooner. This is incorrect, as troponin I is more significant within 3 hours for the nurse’s diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome.
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