An 18-year-old first year college student is admitted to a medical telemetry unit due to a near syncopal episode at the residence hall. The patient has a history of anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder & anorexia nervosa. Their body mass index is 16.7 today. Based on lab data, a right subclavian triple lumen catheter is placed to give total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Ninety minutes after the infusion started, the patient reports muscle cramping, headache & visual changes. Based on these findings, the nurse & healthcare team's highest priority is possible
refeeding syndrome.
sudden hyperglycemia
air embolus.
acute panic attack.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Refeeding syndrome occurs when a malnourished patient is given nutrition (such as TPN), leading to electrolyte imbalances (particularly low phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium) that can cause symptoms like muscle cramping, headache, and visual changes. This condition requires immediate correction of electrolyte imbalances and careful monitoring.
B. Sudden hyperglycemia can occur with TPN, but the symptoms described (muscle cramping, headache, and visual changes) are more consistent with refeeding syndrome.
C. An air embolus is a serious complication but is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.
D. Acute panic attacks could cause some of the symptoms, but the patient's low BMI and history of anorexia nervosa make refeeding syndrome the more likely cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The priority in treating a dislocated joint is to realign the dislocated bones to their proper position, which is crucial to prevent damage to the surrounding nerves, blood vessels, and muscles. This should be done promptly under medical supervision, often requiring sedation or pain management.
B. Teaching the client to avoid contact sports is important for long-term care, but not an immediate priority in the acute phase.
C. Applying a sling helps support the joint, but it is not the first priority; realignment of the joint is more urgent.
D. Letting the joint return to its position on its own may result in complications and should not be relied upon.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Enzymatic medications are not relevant to this condition.
B. Oxygen therapy is critical as these symptoms suggest fat embolism syndrome, which impairs oxygenation.
C. Anticoagulation therapy is not appropriate for fat embolism syndrome, which differs from thromboembolism.
D. Physical therapy is not an immediate intervention for this acute condition.
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